Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume deficit. Which clinical finding would the nurse expect?

• A. Bounding pulse
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Oliguria
• D. Dry mucous membranes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes (D) are a common clinical finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In dehydration, there is insufficient fluid in the body, leading to dry mucous membranes due to decreased saliva production. Bounding pulse (A) is associated with fluid volume excess, not deficit. Bradycardia (B) and oliguria (C) are not typical clinical findings of fluid volume deficit but may be seen in fluid volume excess or other conditions.

2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is admitted with chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
• D. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing chest pain, the priority intervention for the nurse to implement first is to apply oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygenation is crucial to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the tissues and the heart. This intervention takes precedence over administering sublingual nitroglycerin, obtaining an ECG, or initiating continuous cardiac monitoring. While these interventions are important, ensuring adequate oxygenation is the initial priority in the management of a client with chest pain.

3. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
• B. How active is your current sex life?
• C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
• D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Option A is the best response as it directly addresses the client's concern about the reduction in sexual drive caused by the medication. It encourages the client to express their thoughts and feelings about how this side effect may impact their current sexual activity, facilitating open communication and understanding between the nurse and the client. Choices B, C, and D are not as appropriate as they do not directly address the client's immediate concern regarding the impact of the medication on their sexual drive.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
• B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
• C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

5. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

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