a client is 2 days post op from a thoracic surgery and is complaining of incisional pain the client last received pain medication 2 hours ago he is ra
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Quizlet Fundamentals

1. A client is 2 days post-op from thoracic surgery and is complaining of incisional pain. The client last received pain medication 2 hours ago. He is rating his pain as a 5 on a 1-10 scale. After calling the provider, what is the nurse's next action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, since no additional pain medication is available, the nurse should recommend non-pharmacological pain management techniques. Guided imagery and slow rhythmic breathing can help the client manage incisional pain effectively. These techniques can provide distraction and relaxation, potentially reducing the perception of pain without the need for additional medication.

2. The father of an 11-year-old client reports to the nurse that the client has been 'wetting the bed' since the passing of his mother and is concerned. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bedwetting after trauma, such as losing a parent, is common in children. The nurse should inform the father that it is crucial to let the son know that bedwetting is a normal response to trauma. Reassurance and understanding are essential in addressing the child's emotional needs during this difficult time. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on puberty rather than trauma as the underlying cause. Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about nocturnal emissions and developmental delay. Choice D is premature as the first step should be to provide education and support before considering a referral to a psychologist.

3. A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's intravenous infusion pump?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct calculation involves dividing the total volume by the total time. In this case, 250 ml/4 hours = 63 ml/hour. The dose of KCl is not used in the calculation as the focus is on the rate of infusion over the specified time period. Choice A (13 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not result from the correct calculation. Choice C (80 ml/hour) and Choice D (125 ml/hour) are also incorrect calculations and do not match the correct rate of infusion required.

4. When assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair, what is the best action for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best action for the nurse when assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair is to use a transfer belt. Placing a transfer belt around the client, assisting the client to stand, and pivoting to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed allows for a safe and controlled transfer. This method promotes patient independence while ensuring safety during the transfer process. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because using a mechanical lift may not be necessary for a client who can stand, using a roller board may not provide enough stability, and lifting the client with the help of another staff member may not be the safest option for the client's independence and safety.

5. A client with a diagnosis of renal failure is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (C) is elevated and concerning in a client with renal failure receiving hemodialysis, as it can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring blood pressure (A), weight gain (B), and weight loss (D) are essential in clients on hemodialysis, but an elevated potassium level poses an immediate risk that requires prompt intervention.

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