a client has burns covering 40 of their total body surface area tbsa what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. A client has burns covering 40% of their total body surface area (TBSA). What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor the client's urinary output hourly. Clients with burns covering a large percentage of their total body surface area are at high risk for hypovolemia due to fluid loss. Monitoring urinary output is crucial because it helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, providing essential information about the client's hemodynamic status. Applying cool, moist dressings (choice B) is important but not the priority over assessing fluid balance. Administering pain medication (choice C) is essential for comfort but not the priority over monitoring for potential complications like hypovolemia. Administering IV fluids (choice D) is important to prevent hypovolemia, but monitoring urinary output should be the priority to guide fluid resuscitation.

2. The nurse is providing education to a client who experiences recurrent levels of moderate anxiety in response to situations and perceived stress. In addition to information about prescribed medication and administration, which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Teaching relaxation techniques, such as muscle relaxation, helps the client manage anxiety more effectively. These techniques can be practiced regularly to reduce overall anxiety and can complement prescribed medications. Choice B is incorrect because medication should be taken as prescribed, not only when anxiety is at its worst. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding interactions that trigger stress may not always be feasible and does not teach the client coping mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect as engaging in exercise during anxious periods may not be the most effective strategy for managing moderate anxiety levels.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.' Thiazide diuretics can lead to potassium loss, so it is essential for clients to consume potassium-rich foods to maintain adequate levels. Choice A is incorrect because focusing solely on low carbohydrates and fats does not address the specific issue of potassium loss. Choice B is unrelated as vitamin K content is not a concern with thiazide diuretics. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake would exacerbate hypertension and not prevent dehydration.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. What should the nurse teach the client about lithium toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking lithium should avoid NSAIDs as they can increase lithium levels leading to toxicity. It is essential to monitor lithium levels regularly and maintain hydration to prevent toxicity. Reporting symptoms like nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea is important, but the key teaching point regarding lithium toxicity is to avoid NSAIDs.

5. A client reports gastrointestinal upset after taking oral tetracycline. Which snack should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Toast with jelly. Tetracycline can cause gastrointestinal upset when taken with dairy products. Yogurt with fruit (Choice A) contains dairy, which can worsen the gastrointestinal upset. Crackers with peanut butter (Choice C) and oatmeal with raisins (Choice D) are also not the best choices as they may not be gentle enough on the stomach. Toast with jelly is a simple snack that does not contain dairy and is less likely to exacerbate the gastrointestinal upset.

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