a client has burns covering 40 of their total body surface area tbsa what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. A client has burns covering 40% of their total body surface area (TBSA). What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor the client's urinary output hourly. Clients with burns covering a large percentage of their total body surface area are at high risk for hypovolemia due to fluid loss. Monitoring urinary output is crucial because it helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, providing essential information about the client's hemodynamic status. Applying cool, moist dressings (choice B) is important but not the priority over assessing fluid balance. Administering pain medication (choice C) is essential for comfort but not the priority over monitoring for potential complications like hypovolemia. Administering IV fluids (choice D) is important to prevent hypovolemia, but monitoring urinary output should be the priority to guide fluid resuscitation.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed home oxygen therapy. What teaching should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client with COPD prescribed home oxygen therapy is to educate them on how to clean and replace the oxygen tubing. This is crucial to prevent infections and ensure the effectiveness of the oxygen delivery system. Option A is not necessary as oxygen therapy is usually prescribed as needed, not continuously at night. While smoking cessation and avoiding smoke exposure are important in COPD management, it is not directly related to home oxygen therapy. Increasing fluid intake is beneficial for some conditions but is not specifically related to home oxygen therapy for COPD.

3. A client with osteoarthritis is prescribed acetaminophen. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Acetaminophen can cause liver damage if taken in excessive amounts or in combination with other medications containing acetaminophen. Clients should be advised to avoid other pain medications to prevent liver toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because acetaminophen is usually taken with or without food, not specifically on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because taking acetaminophen with food can help prevent stomach upset. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring liver function tests is important for long-term acetaminophen use, the most crucial teaching is to avoid other pain medications to prevent liver damage.

4. Which of these findings would the nurse more closely associate with anemia in a 10-month-old infant?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pale mucous membranes, such as those of the eyelids and lips, are a classic sign of anemia in infants. Anemia leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, resulting in tissue hypoxia, which can manifest as pale mucosa. Choice A, a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL, is within the normal range for a 10-month-old infant and would not necessarily indicate anemia. Choice C, hypoactivity, is a non-specific finding and can be present in various conditions, not specifically anemia. Choice D, a heart rate between 140 to 160, is within the normal range for an infant and is not a specific finding associated with anemia.

5. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.

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