a client has burns covering 40 of their total body surface area tbsa what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. A client has burns covering 40% of their total body surface area (TBSA). What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor the client's urinary output hourly. Clients with burns covering a large percentage of their total body surface area are at high risk for hypovolemia due to fluid loss. Monitoring urinary output is crucial because it helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, providing essential information about the client's hemodynamic status. Applying cool, moist dressings (choice B) is important but not the priority over assessing fluid balance. Administering pain medication (choice C) is essential for comfort but not the priority over monitoring for potential complications like hypovolemia. Administering IV fluids (choice D) is important to prevent hypovolemia, but monitoring urinary output should be the priority to guide fluid resuscitation.

2. The nurse has given discharge instructions to parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, so good oral hygiene is important to prevent complications.

3. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stroke is a major complication of uncontrolled hypertension. Elevated BP, especially at levels like 158/106, can cause damage to blood vessels in the brain, leading to a hemorrhagic stroke. Controlling BP is essential to prevent such life-threatening events. Myocardial infarction (choice B) is more commonly associated with coronary artery disease, while heart failure (choice C) and renal failure (choice D) can be complications of uncontrolled hypertension but are not directly related to the elevated BP leading to a hemorrhagic stroke.

4. A 4-year-old has been hospitalized for 24 hours with skeletal traction for treatment of a fracture of the right femur. The nurse finds that the child is now crying and the right foot is pale with the absence of a pulse. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A pale foot with no pulse suggests a compromised blood supply, indicating a potential vascular emergency. The nurse's immediate priority is to notify the healthcare provider to address the situation promptly. Readjusting the traction, administering PRN medication, or waiting to reassess the foot later could lead to serious complications due to the compromised blood supply, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this critical situation.

5. A client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day. In assessing adverse effects of the medication, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. Enoxaparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), making it crucial to monitor the platelet count for signs of thrombocytopenia. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this serious adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are less relevant in this context. Hemoglobin level checks are more indicative of bleeding issues rather than thrombocytopenia caused by enoxaparin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are less impacted by enoxaparin and are not typically used to monitor for HIT.

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