a client has a nursing diagnosis of spiritual distress related to a loss of hope secondary to impending death what intervention is best for the nurse
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HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Quizlet

1. A client has a nursing diagnosis of 'Spiritual distress related to a loss of hope, secondary to impending death.' What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is experiencing spiritual distress due to a loss of hope related to impending death, it is crucial for the nurse to assist and support the client in establishing short-term goals. This approach helps the client maintain hope and a sense of purpose, as achieving immediate goals can provide a sense of accomplishment and meaning. While acceptance of the final stage of life is important, helping the client set short-term goals is a more immediate and effective intervention in addressing spiritual distress. Encouraging the client to make future plans, especially if they are unrealistic, may not be beneficial as it could lead to further distress if those plans are unattainable. Instructing the client's family to focus on positive aspects of the client's life, though supportive, does not directly address the client's spiritual distress and loss of hope.

2. After hemodialysis, a client with a history of chronic renal failure has just returned to the unit. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial assessment for the nurse to make after hemodialysis in a client with chronic renal failure is to check the client's fistula for bruit and thrill (D). This assessment is essential to ensure the patency of the fistula and adequate blood flow. Auscultating lung sounds (A), assessing blood pressure (B), and monitoring weight (C) are important assessments but are secondary to evaluating the fistula. Checking the fistula is vital as it directly impacts the effectiveness of the client's dialysis treatment and the patency of the vascular access, ensuring successful dialysis sessions.

3. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.

4. A female UAP is assigned to take the vital signs of a client with pertussis for whom droplet precautions have been implemented. The UAP requests a change in assignment because she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. For droplet precautions, such as in the case of pertussis, a standard face mask is sufficient for protection. Particulate filter masks are required for airborne precautions, not for droplet precautions. Therefore, the UAP can proceed with taking the vital signs using a standard mask without the need for a particulate filter mask. Choice A is incorrect because the UAP does not need to get fitted for a particulate filter mask before providing care in this situation. Choice B is incorrect as fitting for a particulate filter mask is not necessary for droplet precautions. Choice D is also incorrect because determining which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks is not relevant to the UAP's situation with the client on droplet precautions. It is important for healthcare workers to understand the appropriate use of personal protective equipment based on the type of precautions in place to provide safe and effective care to clients.

5. The healthcare provider obtains a BP reading of 100/88 in the right arm of a client whose blood pressure is typically 120/60 in the same arm. What action should the healthcare provider implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider should first retake the blood pressure in the right arm, deflating the cuff slowly, because a low systolic and high diastolic blood pressure measurement is often the result of deflating the cuff too rapidly. Taking the BP in the same arm ensures consistency and accuracy of the measurement.

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