a client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd as the nurse enters the clients room his oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Nutrition HESI Practice Exam

1. A client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). As the nurse enters the client's room, the oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute, the client's color is flushed, and his respirations are 8 per minute. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD, it is crucial to prevent carbon dioxide retention by avoiding high oxygen levels. As the client's oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute and he is showing signs of oxygen toxicity, such as flushed color and low respirations, the nurse's priority should be to lower the oxygen rate. This action helps prevent worsening the client's condition. Obtaining an EKG, placing the client in high Fowler's position, or taking baseline vital signs are important assessments but addressing the potential oxygen toxicity takes precedence in this scenario.

2. The client with congestive heart failure has been educated about proper nutrition. The selection of which lunch indicates the client has learned about sodium restriction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple. This lunch choice is suitable for a client with congestive heart failure as it is low in sodium. Sliced turkey is a lean protein choice, and canned pineapple is a low-sodium fruit option. Choice A contains high-sodium items like cheese and 2% milk. Choice C includes a cheeseburger, which is typically high in sodium, and a baked potato could also be high in sodium depending on preparation. Choice D consists of mushroom pizza and ice cream, both of which can be high in sodium, especially in processed or restaurant-prepared forms.

3. A client is being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide (Lasix). Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A rapid weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours suggests significant fluid loss, which is concerning in clients on diuretics like furosemide. Increased urine output (choice A) is an expected effect of diuretic therapy. Decreased appetite (choice B) is a common side effect but not as concerning as rapid weight loss. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg (choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most concerning finding in a client being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide.

4. A client has returned from a cardiac catheterization. Which one of the following assessments would indicate the client is experiencing a complication from the procedure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Loss of pulse in the extremity can indicate an arterial blockage, requiring immediate medical evaluation. Increased blood pressure and heart rate are common physiological responses after cardiac catheterization and may not necessarily indicate a complication. Decreased urine output is more indicative of renal function and may not be directly related to complications from the procedure.

5. A primigravida in the third trimester is hospitalized for preeclampsia. The nurse determines that the client's blood pressure is increasing. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of preeclampsia with increasing blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to have the client turn to the left side. This position helps improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, reducing the risk of complications. Checking the protein level in urine (Choice A) is important for assessing preeclampsia but not the immediate priority when blood pressure is increasing. Taking the temperature (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing increased blood pressure in preeclampsia. Monitoring urine output (Choice D) is essential but not the first action to take when blood pressure is rising.

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