HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. A client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). As the nurse enters the client's room, the oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute, the client's color is flushed, and his respirations are 8 per minute. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Obtain a 12-lead EKG
- B. Place the client in high Fowler's position
- C. Lower the oxygen rate
- D. Take baseline vital signs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with COPD, it is crucial to prevent carbon dioxide retention by avoiding high oxygen levels. As the client's oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute and he is showing signs of oxygen toxicity, such as flushed color and low respirations, the nurse's priority should be to lower the oxygen rate. This action helps prevent worsening the client's condition. Obtaining an EKG, placing the client in high Fowler's position, or taking baseline vital signs are important assessments but addressing the potential oxygen toxicity takes precedence in this scenario.
2. A client is receiving teaching about a high-fiber diet to manage constipation. Which statement indicates the best choice for a high-fiber diet?
- A. Eating one medium apple is a good snack option.
- B. Selecting a ½ cup of sweet potatoes for starch is a great choice.
- C. Choosing a ½ cup of bran cereal for breakfast is ideal.
- D. Opting for 1 ounce of almonds when hungry midday is recommended.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because bran cereal is a high-fiber food that can effectively alleviate constipation by promoting regular bowel movements. Option A, an apple, while a healthy snack, may not provide as much fiber as bran cereal. Option B, sweet potatoes, are nutritious but may not be as high in fiber as bran cereal. Option D, almonds, are a good source of healthy fats and protein but do not provide as much fiber as bran cereal.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with liver cirrhosis. Which of these findings would indicate that the client is experiencing complications of the disease?
- A. Yellowing of the skin and eyes
- B. Presence of spider angiomas on the skin
- C. Ascites and peripheral edema
- D. Clay-colored stools and dark urine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clay-colored stools and dark urine are classic signs of liver dysfunction, indicating bile flow obstruction commonly seen in liver cirrhosis. This finding is a significant complication requiring immediate medical evaluation. Yellowing of the skin and eyes (jaundice) is a common symptom of liver dysfunction but is not specific to complications. Spider angiomas and ascites with peripheral edema are also associated with liver cirrhosis, but they are not indicative of immediate complications as clay-colored stools and dark urine are.
4. What should a client with diarrhea avoid consuming?
- A. Orange juice
- B. Tuna
- C. Eggs
- D. Macaroni
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A client with diarrhea should avoid consuming orange juice. Orange juice is high in sugar content, which can worsen diarrhea symptoms by drawing water into the intestines, potentially leading to further dehydration and discomfort. Tuna, eggs, and macaroni are generally well-tolerated and do not exacerbate diarrhea symptoms, making them more suitable food choices for individuals experiencing diarrhea.
5. In a client with chronic kidney disease having a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which assessment is the most critical for the nurse to perform?
- A. Neurological status
- B. Cardiac status
- C. Respiratory status
- D. Gastrointestinal status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing cardiac status is crucial in hyperkalemia as high potassium levels can result in life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm and ECG findings is essential to prevent cardiac complications. Neurological status, respiratory status, and gastrointestinal status are important assessments too, but in the context of hyperkalemia, cardiac status takes precedence due to the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias.
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