HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with Type 1 diabetes reports feeling shaky and lightheaded. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 60 mg/dL. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Give the client a glucagon injection
- B. Encourage the client to eat a high-protein snack
- C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
- D. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. The first step in treating hypoglycemia is to quickly raise the client's blood sugar level. Fast-acting carbohydrates like glucose tablets or juice are essential for this purpose. Giving a glucagon injection is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take anything by mouth. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for immediate treatment of hypoglycemia. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes is important after administering the fast-acting carbohydrate to ensure that the blood sugar has returned to a safe level.
2. A child is admitted with bacterial meningitis. What assessment finding should the nurse monitor most closely?
- A. Monitor the client’s skin for rash and lesions.
- B. Monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure.
- C. Monitor the client’s blood pressure closely.
- D. Monitor for changes in heart rate and rhythm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Signs of increased intracranial pressure, such as changes in consciousness or pupil reactivity, are critical to monitor in children with bacterial meningitis to prevent complications. Monitoring the client’s skin for rash and lesions (Choice A) is not the priority in bacterial meningitis. While monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is important, signs of increased intracranial pressure take precedence. Monitoring for changes in heart rate and rhythm (Choice D) is less specific to the condition and may not indicate worsening neurological status.
3. The nurse administers an antibiotic for a respiratory tract infection. To evaluate the medication's effectiveness, which laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Platelet count and red blood cell count.
- B. White blood cell count and sputum culture.
- C. Hemoglobin A1c and glucose tolerance test.
- D. Arterial blood gases and serum electrolytes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: White blood cell count and sputum culture. Monitoring white blood cell count and sputum cultures is essential to assess the effectiveness of the antibiotic in treating the respiratory tract infection. Changes in white blood cell count can indicate the body's response to infection, while sputum cultures help determine if the antibiotic is targeting the specific pathogens causing the infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because platelet count, red blood cell count, hemoglobin A1c, glucose tolerance test, arterial blood gases, and serum electrolytes are not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of an antibiotic in treating a respiratory tract infection.
4. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and needs health insurance. To which agency should the employee health nurse refer her?
- A. Medicaid
- B. Medicare
- C. COBRA
- D. Private insurance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medicare. Medicare is the federal health insurance program for individuals aged 65 and older, so it is the most suitable option for the 66-year-old woman retiring. Medicaid (choice A) is a state and federally funded program for low-income individuals and families, not specifically for retirees. COBRA (choice C) allows employees to continue their employer-sponsored health insurance for a limited time after leaving employment. Private insurance (choice D) refers to health insurance plans purchased directly from private insurance companies.
5. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Describes life without purpose
- C. Exhibits mood swings
- D. Complains of insomnia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An adolescent expressing 'life without purpose' after taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) may be indicating suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. The initial period of antidepressant treatment can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts, especially in younger populations. Increased appetite (Choice A) is a common side effect of duloxetine and may not require immediate follow-up. Mood swings (Choice C) and insomnia (Choice D) are also possible side effects of the medication but are not as urgent as addressing suicidal ideation.
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