HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with Type 1 diabetes reports feeling shaky and lightheaded. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 60 mg/dL. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Give the client a glucagon injection
- B. Encourage the client to eat a high-protein snack
- C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
- D. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. The first step in treating hypoglycemia is to quickly raise the client's blood sugar level. Fast-acting carbohydrates like glucose tablets or juice are essential for this purpose. Giving a glucagon injection is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take anything by mouth. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for immediate treatment of hypoglycemia. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes is important after administering the fast-acting carbohydrate to ensure that the blood sugar has returned to a safe level.
2. What breakfast selection indicates appropriate dietary management for osteoporosis?
- A. Pancakes with syrup and orange juice
- B. Bagel with jelly and skim milk
- C. Eggs with sausage and whole milk
- D. French toast with butter and syrup
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bagel with jelly and skim milk is a calcium-rich and low-fat option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for managing osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, so it is essential to consume an adequate amount of calcium while avoiding excess fat intake. Choices A, C, and D are not ideal for osteoporosis management as they either lack sufficient calcium, contain high fat content, or both.
3. A client with heart failure receiving furosemide develops muscle weakness. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer potassium supplements as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client’s potassium levels.
- C. Instruct the client to increase their salt intake.
- D. Discontinue the furosemide.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Muscle weakness in a client receiving furosemide (a diuretic) is often a sign of hypokalemia, as furosemide increases potassium loss. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to identify and address any imbalances and prevent complications such as arrhythmias. Administering potassium supplements without monitoring the levels can lead to hyperkalemia, which has its own set of serious complications. Instructing the client to increase salt intake is not appropriate in this situation as it does not address the underlying electrolyte imbalance. Discontinuing furosemide abruptly can worsen heart failure symptoms; therefore, monitoring potassium levels and adjusting the treatment accordingly is the most appropriate action.
4. A client with myasthenia gravis (MG) is receiving immunosuppressive therapy. Recent lab tests show decreased serum magnesium. What nursing action is most important?
- A. Observe rhythm on telemetry monitor.
- B. Check for visual difficulties.
- C. Assess for hip and hand joint pain.
- D. Note the most recent hemoglobin level.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Magnesium plays a crucial role in maintaining normal cardiac rhythms, particularly in patients with cardiac conditions. Abnormal levels can lead to arrhythmias, which is why continuous monitoring of the heart's electrical activity is important. Magnesium's effect on neuromuscular and cardiac function makes it essential to monitor its levels, and any discrepancies can impact treatment decisions. Checking for visual difficulties (choice B) may be important in MG but is not the priority in the context of decreased serum magnesium. Assessing for hip and hand joint pain (choice C) is not directly related to the issue of decreased serum magnesium. Noting the most recent hemoglobin level (choice D) is not the priority in this situation compared to monitoring the cardiac rhythm due to low magnesium levels.
5. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing paranoia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Reassure the client that their fears are unfounded.
- B. Place the client in a private room to reduce stimuli.
- C. Provide the client with a distraction to redirect their attention.
- D. Encourage the client to express their concerns and validate their feelings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging clients with paranoia to express their concerns and validating their feelings is crucial as it helps establish trust and reduce anxiety. This approach also aids in building a therapeutic relationship. Reassuring the client that their fears are unfounded (Choice A) may invalidate their feelings and worsen trust. Placing the client in a private room to reduce stimuli (Choice B) may be helpful in some situations but does not address the underlying issue of paranoia. Providing a distraction (Choice C) may temporarily shift the client's focus but does not address the root cause of the paranoia. Therefore, the priority intervention is to encourage the client to express their concerns and validate their feelings.
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