Nursing Elites

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Monitor stools for blood and review PTT results.
• D. Continue the heparin and prepare to administer Vitamin K.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.

2. The nurse is providing care for a client with advanced liver disease who is experiencing ascites. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help manage the client's fluid volume?

• A. Increase the client's sodium intake
• B. Encourage the client to drink more fluids
• C. Place the client in a supine position
• D. Administer a diuretic as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a diuretic as prescribed is the most appropriate intervention to manage fluid volume in a client with ascites due to advanced liver disease. Diuretics help reduce fluid accumulation in the body, including the abdominal cavity where ascites occurs. Increasing sodium intake would worsen fluid retention, and encouraging more fluid intake can exacerbate ascites. Placing the client in a supine position does not directly address the fluid volume issue associated with ascites.

3. After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed.
• C. Encourage the client to rest in a dark room.
• D. Administer caffeine to relieve the headache.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.

4. A client with hypertension has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker. What should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Monitor heart rate regularly
• B. Avoid potassium-rich foods
• C. Increase fluid intake to avoid dehydration
• D. Take the medication with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Calcium channel blockers can cause bradycardia, so it is important for the client to monitor their heart rate regularly. This helps detect any significant changes in heart rate that may require medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because there is no need to avoid potassium-rich foods with calcium channel blockers. Choice C is incorrect as increasing fluid intake is not specifically related to calcium channel blockers. Choice D is incorrect as calcium channel blockers are usually taken with or without food, depending on the specific medication, but not specifically on an empty stomach.

5. The nurse is responsible for several elderly clients, including a client on bed rest with a skin tear and hematoma from a fall 2 days ago. What is the best care assignment for this client?

• A. Assign an RN to supervise a nursing assistant for skin care
• B. Assign a nursing assistant to help the client with self-care activities
• C. Delegate complete care to an unlicensed assistive personnel
• D. Supervise a nursing assistant for skin care

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best care assignment for the client with a skin tear and hematoma is to supervise a nursing assistant for skin care. This ensures proper wound care while utilizing the skills of the nursing assistant effectively. Assigning an RN to supervise the nursing assistant is appropriate as it provides the necessary expertise for wound care supervision. Delegating complete care to an unlicensed assistive personnel may not be suitable for a client with specific wound care needs. Helping the client with self-care activities may not directly address the urgent need for proper wound care in this situation.

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