HESI RN
HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam
1. While assessing the vital signs of a 10-year-old who underwent a tonsillectomy this morning, the nurse observes the child swallowing every 2-3 minutes. Which assessment should the nurse implement?
- A. Inspect the posterior oropharynx
- B. Assess for teeth clenching or grinding
- C. Touch the tonsillar pillars to stimulate the gag reflex
- D. Ask the child to speak to evaluate a change in voice tone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Frequent swallowing post-tonsillectomy may indicate bleeding. Inspecting the posterior oropharynx is essential to assess for any signs of bleeding, such as fresh blood or clots, which may necessitate immediate intervention. Option B is incorrect as teeth clenching or grinding is not directly related to the observation of frequent swallowing in this scenario. Option C is incorrect because stimulating the gag reflex is not necessary at this point and may be uncomfortable for the child. Option D is incorrect as evaluating a change in voice tone is not relevant to the situation of observing frequent swallowing.
2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Confusion and altered mental status
- C. Yellowing of the skin
- D. Increased abdominal girth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with cirrhosis presenting with jaundice and ascites, yellowing of the skin (icterus) is the most concerning assessment finding. This indicates significant liver dysfunction and a high level of bilirubin in the blood. Yellowing of the skin suggests a severe impairment of the liver's ability to process bilirubin, which can lead to serious complications. Peripheral edema and increased abdominal girth are common manifestations of cirrhosis but are not as acutely concerning as skin yellowing. Confusion and altered mental status are also critical findings in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but skin yellowing is more closely associated with the severity of liver dysfunction in this scenario.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled to have blood drawn for a fasting blood glucose determination in the morning. What does the nurse tell the client is acceptable to consume on the morning of the test?
- A. Water
- B. Tea without sugar
- C. Coffee without milk
- D. Clear liquids like apple juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Water. A client scheduled for a fasting blood glucose test should only consume water after midnight to ensure accurate test results. Choosing options B, C, or D, which include tea, coffee, or clear liquids like apple juice, is incorrect as they may contain substances that can affect the blood glucose levels, leading to inaccurate test results.
4. Which of the following is subsidiary uterine support?
- A. Suspensory ligament
- B. Cardinal ligament
- C. Transcervical ligament
- D. Maklouf ligament
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cardinal ligament. The cardinal ligament is a primary uterine support structure that helps to anchor the uterus in place. The suspensory ligament also provides support for the uterus but is not considered a subsidiary uterine support. The transcervical ligament does not exist in anatomical terminology. The Maklouf ligament is a fictitious term and not recognized as a subsidiary uterine support structure.
5. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with a high risk of stroke?
- A. Hypertension.
- B. Diabetes.
- C. Obesity.
- D. Smoking.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypertension is the correct answer. Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a major risk factor for stroke because it puts increased pressure on blood vessels in the brain, making them more prone to damage and increasing the likelihood of a stroke. While diabetes, obesity, and smoking are also risk factors for stroke, hypertension is the most commonly associated condition with a high risk of stroke due to its direct impact on the blood vessels.