HESI RN
HESI Practice Test Pediatrics
1. What is the most suitable toy for a 3-year-old boy receiving weekly chemotherapy treatment?
- A. Bouncy ball
- B. Coloring book with crayons
- C. Duck that squeaks
- D. Remote-controlled car
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A coloring book with crayons is the best choice as it is safe, engaging, and can provide a distraction during treatment without posing any safety risks. Coloring activities can help keep the child occupied, promote creativity, and offer a calming and therapeutic outlet during chemotherapy sessions.
2. A 10-year-old child is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value should the practical nurse (PN) anticipate?
- A. Elevated blood glucose.
- B. Decreased serum ketones.
- C. Low urine glucose.
- D. High bicarbonate levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a case of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the primary feature is elevated blood glucose levels due to insulin deficiency. Additionally, ketones are increased in the blood and urine. Bicarbonate levels are usually low because of the metabolic acidosis that accompanies DKA. Therefore, the practical nurse should anticipate elevated blood glucose levels as a characteristic laboratory finding in a child admitted with DKA. Choice B is incorrect because serum ketones are increased in DKA. Choice C is incorrect because in DKA, urine glucose is typically high due to spillage of glucose into the urine. Choice D is incorrect because bicarbonate levels are usually low in DKA, not high.
3. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?
- A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
- B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
- C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
- D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.
4. The mother of an 11-year-old boy with juvenile arthritis tells the nurse, 'I really don’t want my son to become dependent on pain medication, so I only allow him to take it when he is really hurting.' Which information is most important for the nurse to provide this mother?
- A. Encouraging the child to rest when he experiences pain
- B. Encouraging quiet activities like watching television as a pain distractor
- C. Suggesting the use of hot baths as an alternative to pain medication
- D. Explaining that giving pain medication around the clock helps control the pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should educate the mother that giving pain medication around the clock helps maintain a consistent level of pain control, preventing severe pain episodes and improving the child's quality of life. It is essential to manage pain proactively rather than waiting for the child to be in severe pain before administering medication. Choices A, B, and C do not address the importance of proactive pain management and maintaining a consistent level of pain control. Encouraging rest, quiet activities, or hot baths as distractions or alternatives may not provide adequate pain relief for the child with juvenile arthritis, and they do not address the underlying issue of effective pain management.
5. A mother brings her school-aged daughter to the pediatric clinic for evaluation of her anti-epileptic medication regimen. What information should the nurse provide to the mother?
- A. The medication dose will be tapered over a period of 2 weeks when being discontinued
- B. If seizures return, multiple medications will be prescribed for another 2 years
- C. A dose of valproic acid (Depakote) should be available in the event of status epilepticus
- D. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and phenobarbital (Luminal) should be taken for life
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Antiepileptic drugs should not be abruptly stopped as it may lead to seizure recurrence. Tapering the medication over a period of 2 weeks helps to prevent withdrawal effects and minimize the risk of seizures. Choice B is incorrect because starting multiple medications for seizure recurrence is not the first-line approach. Choice C is incorrect because valproic acid is not the first-line medication given in the event of status epilepticus. Choice D is incorrect because antiepileptic medications are usually evaluated over time and adjusted based on the individual's response; it is not always necessary to take them for life.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access