Nursing Elites

1. A child with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) who is receiving chemotherapy via a subclavian IV infusion has an oral temperature of 103 degrees. In assessing the IV site, the nurse determines that there are no signs of infection at the site. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Obtain a specimen for blood cultures.
• B. Assess the CBC.
• C. Monitor the oral temperature every hour.
• D. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obtaining a specimen for blood cultures is crucial in this situation as it helps identify the source of infection, if present, and guide appropriate treatment. This is important in a child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy to prevent potential complications and ensure timely intervention. Assessing the CBC may provide overall information on the child's condition but may not specifically identify a potential infection. Monitoring the oral temperature is important but obtaining blood cultures takes precedence in this scenario. Administering acetaminophen can help reduce fever but does not address the need to identify a possible infection source.

2. When instilling ear drops in a 2-year-old child, how should the practical nurse (PN) position the earlobe to straighten the external auditory canal?

• A. Up and back.
• B. Down and back.
• C. Up and forward.
• D. Down and forward.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering ear drops to a child under three years old, it is essential to pull the earlobe down and back. This positioning helps straighten the external auditory canal, facilitating the proper administration of the ear drops. Pulling the earlobe down and back in young children aims to ensure that the medication reaches the intended area for optimal effectiveness.

3. A 15-year-old client with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic for a routine follow-up. The nurse notes that the client’s hemoglobin A1c is 10%. What should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Increase the frequency of self-monitoring of blood glucose.
• B. Discuss dietary changes to reduce carbohydrate intake.
• C. Review the client’s insulin administration technique.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 10% indicates poor blood glucose control, reflecting an average blood sugar level over the past 2-3 months. To improve control, the plan of care should be comprehensive. Increasing the frequency of self-monitoring of blood glucose helps track changes in blood sugar levels. Discussing dietary changes to reduce carbohydrate intake can aid in better blood sugar management. Reviewing the client’s insulin administration technique ensures proper medication dosing. Therefore, all the options (increasing monitoring, discussing dietary changes, and reviewing insulin administration) are essential components of the plan of care to address the client's poor blood glucose control. The correct answer is D because all these interventions are crucial for managing the client's condition effectively. Choices A, B, and C individually address different aspects of diabetes management and are all necessary in this scenario.

4. A mother reports to the nurse at the pediatric clinic that her toddler has had a fever and sore throat for the past two days. The nurse observes several swollen red spots on the child's body, some of which are fluid-filled blisters. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a fluid culture from the blisters
• B. Administer a fever-reducing medication
• C. Cover the draining vesicles with a dressing
• D. Implement transmission precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The presence of swollen red spots and fluid-filled blisters may indicate a contagious condition. Implementing transmission precautions is crucial to prevent the spread of the infection to others in the clinic setting.

5. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide to parents?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
• B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
• C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
• D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects males. It is crucial for the nurse to explain to the parents that this condition follows an inheritance pattern where the gene mutation responsible for the disorder is located on the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome, so if they inherit the mutated gene, they will develop the disease. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes, providing a backup copy that can compensate for the mutation. Understanding this inheritance pattern is essential for family planning decisions, as the risk of passing on the disorder to future children can be explained based on this genetic inheritance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the genetic basis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy or its inheritance pattern, which is crucial information for the parents in this scenario.

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