Nursing Elites

1. A child with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) who is receiving chemotherapy via a subclavian IV infusion has an oral temperature of 103 degrees. In assessing the IV site, the nurse determines that there are no signs of infection at the site. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Obtain a specimen for blood cultures.
• B. Assess the CBC.
• C. Monitor the oral temperature every hour.
• D. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obtaining a specimen for blood cultures is crucial in this situation as it helps identify the source of infection, if present, and guide appropriate treatment. This is important in a child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy to prevent potential complications and ensure timely intervention. Assessing the CBC may provide overall information on the child's condition but may not specifically identify a potential infection. Monitoring the oral temperature is important but obtaining blood cultures takes precedence in this scenario. Administering acetaminophen can help reduce fever but does not address the need to identify a possible infection source.

2. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

3. When assessing a 10-year-old newly diagnosed with osteomyelitis, which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Recent history of infection recurrences.
• B. Cultural heritage and beliefs.
• C. Family history of bone disorders.
• D. Increased fluid intake occurrences.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 10-year-old with newly diagnosed osteomyelitis, the most important information for the nurse to obtain is the recent history of infection recurrences. This is crucial because osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone, and assessing for any recent recurrence of infections can help in determining the possible source of the osteomyelitis and guide the treatment plan accordingly. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in the immediate assessment of a newly diagnosed case of osteomyelitis as they do not directly impact the current infection or treatment plan.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a child for neurological soft signs. Which finding is most likely demonstrated in the child's behavior?

• A. Inability to move the tongue in a specific direction.
• B. Presence of vertigo.
• C. Poor coordination and sense of position.
• D. Loss of visual acuity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Neurological soft signs in children often manifest as poor coordination and a sense of position. These signs can indicate underlying neurological issues and are important to assess in pediatric patients. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with neurological soft signs in children. Inability to move the tongue in a specific direction may suggest a cranial nerve dysfunction rather than general neurological soft signs. Presence of vertigo is more related to inner ear disturbances or vestibular issues. Loss of visual acuity may indicate problems with the eyes rather than general neurological soft signs.

5. What is the priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup presenting with a barking cough and stridor?

• A. Administer a corticosteroid
• B. Obtain a throat culture
• C. Administer nebulized epinephrine
• D. Place the child in an upright position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup and stridor is to administer nebulized epinephrine. Nebulized epinephrine helps reduce airway swelling, alleviate symptoms, and improve breathing by causing vasoconstriction and reducing upper airway edema. Administering a corticosteroid may be done but is not the priority in this scenario. Obtaining a throat culture is not necessary for the immediate management of croup. Placing the child in an upright position can aid in breathing but is not the priority action when the child is presenting with stridor.

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