Nursing Elites

1. A child with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) who is receiving chemotherapy via a subclavian IV infusion has an oral temperature of 103 degrees. In assessing the IV site, the nurse determines that there are no signs of infection at the site. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Obtain a specimen for blood cultures.
• B. Assess the CBC.
• C. Monitor the oral temperature every hour.
• D. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obtaining a specimen for blood cultures is crucial in this situation as it helps identify the source of infection, if present, and guide appropriate treatment. This is important in a child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy to prevent potential complications and ensure timely intervention. Assessing the CBC may provide overall information on the child's condition but may not specifically identify a potential infection. Monitoring the oral temperature is important but obtaining blood cultures takes precedence in this scenario. Administering acetaminophen can help reduce fever but does not address the need to identify a possible infection source.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant's clinical picture?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis.
• B. Respiratory acidosis.
• C. Metabolic acidosis.
• D. Respiratory alkalosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis leads to obstruction at the outlet of the stomach, causing frequent vomiting and loss of stomach acids. This results in a loss of hydrochloric acid and hydrogen ions, leading to metabolic alkalosis due to an increase in serum bicarbonate levels. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic alkalosis. Choice B, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect as it is not typically associated with pyloric stenosis. Choice C, metabolic acidosis, is incorrect because the loss of stomach acids in pyloric stenosis leads to metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D, respiratory alkalosis, is also incorrect as it is not the usual consequence of pyloric stenosis.

3. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for a 4-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome?

• A. Impaired urinary elimination.
• B. Risk for infection.
• C. Fluid volume excess.
• D. Risk for impaired skin integrity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome, fluid volume excess is a priority nursing diagnosis due to the risk of edema and related complications. This patient may experience significant fluid retention, leading to edema, hypertension, and potential respiratory distress. Monitoring and managing fluid volume excess are crucial in preventing further complications and supporting the child's health during nephrotic syndrome. The other options are not the priority in this case. Impaired urinary elimination is not typically a primary concern in nephrotic syndrome. While infection is a risk due to compromised immunity, fluid volume excess poses a more immediate threat to the child's health. Risk for impaired skin integrity may be a concern secondary to edema, but addressing fluid volume excess takes precedence.

4. The nurse is caring for a 14-year-old adolescent who was admitted to the hospital after a suicide attempt. The adolescent’s mood appears stable, and the healthcare provider has recommended discharge. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Ensure that a safety plan is in place before discharge
• B. Provide education about medication adherence
• C. Encourage the adolescent to participate in group therapy
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment with a mental health professional

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to ensure that a safety plan is in place before discharge. A safety plan is essential to assist the adolescent in managing future crises and decreasing the likelihood of another suicide attempt. It provides guidance on coping strategies and resources to help the adolescent stay safe in times of distress.

5. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario since the heart rate of 128 bpm is within an acceptable range for a 2-year-old child with heart failure. Monitoring for signs of digoxin toxicity is important; however, the immediate action required is to administer the scheduled dose as prescribed based on the heart rate assessment.

Similar Questions