Nursing Elites

1. During a well-baby check of a 7-month-old infant, the practical nurse notes an absence of babbling. Which focused assessment should the PN implement?

• A. Visual function.
• B. Auditory function.
• C. Cognitive function.
• D. Social development.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of babbling in a 7-month-old infant is a concerning auditory development milestone. Babbling is an early stage of language development that involves making various sounds. A lack of babbling could indicate a hearing impairment or other auditory issues. Therefore, the practical nurse should focus on assessing the infant's auditory function to determine if further evaluation or intervention is necessary. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the absence of babbling specifically points towards a potential issue related to auditory function rather than visual, cognitive, or social development.

2. When assessing the breath sounds of an 18-month-old child who is crying, what action should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Document that the assessment is not available because the child is crying.
• B. Ask the caregiver to quiet the child so breath sounds can be auscultated.
• C. Allow the child to play with a stethoscope to distract them during auscultation.
• D. Auscultate and document breath sounds, noting that the child was crying at the time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Allowing the child to play with a stethoscope can help distract them, making it easier to auscultate breath sounds. This approach can create a more cooperative and engaging environment for the child, facilitating a more accurate assessment of their breath sounds. Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the need for an assessment. Choice B is not ideal as it puts pressure on the caregiver and may not be effective in calming the child. Choice D is not the best option as it does not actively involve the child in the assessment process and may not provide an accurate representation of their breath sounds.

3. A child with a fever of 39°C (102.2°F) and a sore throat is brought to the clinic. The practical nurse suspects the child has streptococcal pharyngitis. Which diagnostic test should the practical nurse prepare the child for?

• A. Rapid antigen detection test.
• B. Throat culture.
• C. Complete blood count (CBC).
• D. Chest X-ray.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A rapid antigen detection test is the appropriate diagnostic test for suspected streptococcal pharyngitis. This test is commonly used due to its quick results, helping in the prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment of the condition. It specifically detects the presence of streptococcal antigens in the throat, aiding in confirming the diagnosis and guiding the healthcare provider in determining the most suitable treatment plan. Throat culture (Choice B) is a confirmatory test but is not as rapid as the rapid antigen detection test. Complete blood count (Choice C) and Chest X-ray (Choice D) are not specific tests for streptococcal pharyngitis and would not aid in confirming the diagnosis.

4. The nurse is caring for a 3-year-old child who has been recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which discharge instruction by the nurse is most important to promote pulmonary function?

• A. Chest physiotherapy should be performed before meals and at bedtime
• B. Cough suppressants can be used up to four times a day for relief
• C. Oxygen should be given through a nasal cannula between 4-6 L/min
• D. Exercise is discouraged in order to preserve pulmonary vital capacity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cystic fibrosis, thick mucus obstructs the airways, making it difficult to clear from the lungs. Cough suppressants can help reduce the discomfort associated with persistent coughing, allowing the child to cough more effectively to clear the mucus, thus promoting pulmonary function. Chest physiotherapy, not exercise, helps mobilize the mucus. Oxygen therapy may be needed but is not the most important for promoting pulmonary function in this case.

5. A male adolescent who is newly diagnosed with a seizure disorder receives a prescription for an anticonvulsant. Which statement indicates the client is at risk for non-compliance with life-long medication management?

• A. I hope I will be able to drive while taking these pills.
• B. My friends will think I am a freak if I take these pills.
• C. I don't want my parents monitoring my medications.
• D. I will take the pills at home so others will not see me.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The statement 'My friends will think I am a freak if I take these pills' indicates concerns about peer perception, which can lead to non-compliance in adolescents. Peer pressure and fear of social stigma can significantly impact medication adherence in this age group. Option B is the most concerning response as it reflects the client's worry about how others perceive him for taking medication, potentially leading to non-compliance due to social pressures. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address societal perception or peer pressure, making them less likely to impact the client's medication adherence negatively.

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