Nursing Elites

1. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Start IV fluids.
• C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

2. The child is 3 years old and is 2 hours postop from a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery. Which assessment finding indicates arterial obstruction?

• A. Blood pressure is decreasing, and the pulse is rapid and irregular.
• B. The right foot feels cool to the touch and appears pale and blanched.
• C. The pulse distal to the femoral artery is weaker in the left foot than the right foot.
• D. The pressure dressing at the right femoral area is damp and oozing blood.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A cool, pale, and blanched foot is indicative of arterial obstruction, leading to poor blood flow. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Monitoring for signs of arterial compromise, such as color changes, temperature, and capillary refill, is crucial in detecting and managing vascular complications post-cardiac catheterization. Choices A, C, and D do not directly indicate arterial obstruction. While a decreasing blood pressure and rapid, irregular pulse may suggest compromise, these findings are more nonspecific. A weaker pulse distal to the femoral artery indicates reduced perfusion but not necessarily arterial obstruction. Finally, a damp, oozing pressure dressing suggests a dressing issue rather than arterial obstruction.

3. Which statement by a school-aged client going to summer camp indicates the best understanding of the mode of transmission of Lyme disease?

• A. I'll cover my mouth with a wet cloth if there's too much dust blowing.
• B. Cuts and scrapes need to be washed out and covered right away.
• C. I'm not going to swim where the water is standing still or feels too hot.
• D. I have to wear long sleeves and pants when we're hiking around the pond.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Wearing long sleeves and pants is an effective measure to prevent tick bites, which can transmit Lyme disease. Ticks are commonly found in wooded areas and tall grass, so covering exposed skin helps reduce the risk of tick bites and subsequently lowers the risk of contracting Lyme disease. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. Option A pertains to respiratory protection against dust, Option B focuses on wound care, and Option C relates to water safety, none of which are directly related to preventing Lyme disease transmission.

4. When obtaining the nursing history of a 7-year-old child admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN), which finding should the nurse expect to obtain?

• A. High blood cholesterol level on routine screening.
• B. Increased thirst and urination.
• C. A recent strep throat infection.
• D. A recent DPT immunization.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a child with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN), a common trigger to expect in the nursing history is a recent strep throat infection. AGN can be triggered by a streptococcal infection, leading to the deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli. This finding is crucial as it helps identify a potential cause for the development of AGN in the child. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as high blood cholesterol levels, increased thirst and urination, and recent DPT immunization are not directly associated with triggering acute glomerulonephritis in children.

5. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. The nurse obtained an apical heart rate of 128 bpm, which is within the expected range for a 2-year-old child. Therefore, there is no immediate concern to withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin. Determining the pulse deficit is not necessary as the heart rate is appropriate. Calculating the safe dose range is not needed as the current dose is within the therapeutic range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level may be indicated later for monitoring but is not urgent based on the heart rate assessment. Administering the scheduled dose of digoxin is the correct action at this time.

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