Nursing Elites

1. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Start IV fluids.
• C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

2. A 10-year-old child is being discharged after being admitted for status asthmaticus. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Use a peak flow meter daily to monitor asthma control
• B. Avoid exposure to known allergens
• C. Continue taking asthma medications as prescribed
• D. Seek emergency care if symptoms worsen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a peak flow meter daily is crucial as it helps monitor asthma control by measuring how well the child's lungs are functioning. This monitoring can indicate when intervention is needed before symptoms worsen or become severe, allowing for timely management of asthma exacerbations.

3. What is the priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup presenting with a barking cough and stridor?

• A. Administer a corticosteroid
• B. Obtain a throat culture
• C. Administer nebulized epinephrine
• D. Place the child in an upright position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup and stridor is to administer nebulized epinephrine. Nebulized epinephrine helps reduce airway swelling, alleviate symptoms, and improve breathing by causing vasoconstriction and reducing upper airway edema. Administering a corticosteroid may be done but is not the priority in this scenario. Obtaining a throat culture is not necessary for the immediate management of croup. Placing the child in an upright position can aid in breathing but is not the priority action when the child is presenting with stridor.

4. The parents of a 4-year-old child who has just been diagnosed with celiac disease are being educated by a healthcare provider. Which statement by the parents indicates a correct understanding of the condition?

• A. We can give our child small amounts of gluten occasionally
• B. We need to avoid giving our child foods containing wheat, barley, and rye
• C. We should limit our child’s intake of dairy products
• D. Our child will need to take gluten-free supplements

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because for individuals with celiac disease, a strict gluten-free diet is essential for managing the condition. Foods containing wheat, barley, and rye must be completely avoided to prevent adverse reactions and damage to the intestines. This dietary restriction is crucial to ensure the child's health and well-being in managing celiac disease effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because giving small amounts of gluten occasionally, limiting dairy products, or taking gluten-free supplements are not sufficient measures to manage celiac disease. Complete avoidance of gluten-containing foods is necessary to prevent complications.

5. A child receives a prescription for amantadine 42 mg PO BID. Amantadine is available as a 50 mg/5 mL syrup. Using a supplied calibrated measuring device, how many mL should be administered per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 4.2 mL
• B. 5 mL
• C. 3.6 mL
• D. 4 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL per dose, divide the prescribed dose (42 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (50 mg/5 mL) and then convert the result to mL. 42 mg / 50 mg = 0.84. To find the amount in mL, multiply 0.84 by 5 mL, which equals 4.2 mL. Therefore, 4.2 mL should be administered per dose.

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