Nursing Elites

1. The mother of a 14-year old who had a below-the-knee amputation for osteosarcoma tells the nurse that her child is angry and blaming her for allowing the amputation to occur. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. I will ask the HCP for a psychiatric consult for your child'
• B. This type of acting out behavior is normal for adolescents'
• C. It is important to focus on your child’s needs at this difficult time'
• D. A reaction of anger is your child’s attempt to cope with this loss'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the child's anger as part of the coping process helps the mother understand her child's emotional response.

2. During a follow-up clinical visit, a mother tells the nurse that her 5-month-old son, who had surgical correction for tetralogy of Fallot, has rapid breathing, often takes a long time to eat, and requires frequent rest periods. The infant is not crying while being held, and his growth is in the expected range. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Stimulate the infant to cry to produce cyanosis
• B. Auscultate the heart and lungs while the infant is held
• C. Evaluate the infant for failure to thrive
• D. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Auscultating the heart and lungs while the infant is held can provide important diagnostic information in assessing the cardiac and respiratory status of the infant who had surgical correction for tetralogy of Fallot. This intervention can help the nurse identify any abnormal heart or lung sounds, which may indicate complications or issues that need further evaluation or intervention.

3. A 7-year-old child with type 1 diabetes is brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The nurse notes that the child's blood glucose level is 350 mg/dL. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
• B. Administer insulin as prescribed
• C. Monitor the child's urine output
• D. Check the child's urine for ketones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with type 1 diabetes presenting with abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a high blood glucose level, the priority is to administer IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which are crucial in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering insulin without addressing fluid deficits can lead to further complications. While monitoring urine output and checking for ketones are important steps in the care of a child with diabetes, the immediate focus should be on correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances through IV fluid administration to stabilize the child's condition.

4. A two-year-old child with heart failure is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario as the heart rate of 128 bpm falls within the acceptable range for a two-year-old child with heart failure. It indicates that the child may benefit from the therapeutic effects of digoxin. Monitoring the heart rate closely after administration is essential to ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is within the acceptable range. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not needed since the heart rate is already within the expected parameters. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not the immediate action required in this case where the heart rate is within the normal range.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

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