Nursing Elites

1. The mother of a 14-year old who had a below-the-knee amputation for osteosarcoma tells the nurse that her child is angry and blaming her for allowing the amputation to occur. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. I will ask the HCP for a psychiatric consult for your child'
• B. This type of acting out behavior is normal for adolescents'
• C. It is important to focus on your child’s needs at this difficult time'
• D. A reaction of anger is your child’s attempt to cope with this loss'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the child's anger as part of the coping process helps the mother understand her child's emotional response.

2. A 5-year-old child with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the child’s white blood cell count is low. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Administer antibiotics as prescribed
• B. Place the child in protective isolation
• C. Encourage the child to eat a balanced diet
• D. Teach the parents about infection prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a 5-year-old child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy and having a low white blood cell count is to place the child in protective isolation. This intervention helps reduce the risk of infection, which is crucial in this immunocompromised state. Protective isolation aims to limit the child's exposure to pathogens and promote their safety during a period of increased vulnerability to infections.

3. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. The nurse obtained an apical heart rate of 128 bpm, which is within the expected range for a 2-year-old child. Therefore, there is no immediate concern to withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin. Determining the pulse deficit is not necessary as the heart rate is appropriate. Calculating the safe dose range is not needed as the current dose is within the therapeutic range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level may be indicated later for monitoring but is not urgent based on the heart rate assessment. Administering the scheduled dose of digoxin is the correct action at this time.

4. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Start IV fluids.
• C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

5. What recommendation should the PN provide to help a 5-year-old girl who has started wetting the bed again after being dry at night for several months?

• A. Explain that bedwetting is normal in children and will pass with time.
• B. Advise limiting fluids in the evening and before bedtime.
• C. Suggest punishing the child for wetting the bed to prevent recurrence.
• D. Encourage the child to use the bathroom immediately before bed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the child to use the bathroom before bed is a helpful recommendation to prevent nighttime bedwetting. Bedwetting can sometimes reoccur due to stress or other factors, and ensuring the child empties their bladder before sleeping may reduce the likelihood of bedwetting episodes. Choice A is incorrect because while bedwetting is common in children, it is essential to provide practical solutions rather than just reassurance. Choice B is not the best option for a child who has recently started bedwetting again after being dry, as it may not address the underlying cause. Choice C is inappropriate and harmful as punishing the child for bedwetting can lead to psychological distress and worsen the situation.

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