the mother of a 14 year old who had a below the knee amputation for osteosarcoma tells the nurse that her child is angry and blaming her for allowing
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pediatric HESI

1. The mother of a 14-year old who had a below-the-knee amputation for osteosarcoma tells the nurse that her child is angry and blaming her for allowing the amputation to occur. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the child's anger as part of the coping process helps the mother understand her child's emotional response.

2. The mother of a one-month-old calls the clinic to report that the back of her infant's head is flat. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Positioning the infant on the stomach occasionally when awake and active can help prevent flat spots on the head. This position allows for more natural movement and prevents prolonged pressure on one area of the head, reducing the risk of developing a flat spot. Turning the infant on the left side braced against the crib when sleeping (choice A) is not recommended as it does not address the issue of flat spots. Propping the infant in a sitting position with a cushion when not sleeping (choice B) may increase the risk of falls and is not suitable for a one-month-old. Placing a small pillow under the infant's head while lying on the back (choice C) should be avoided due to the risk of suffocation and sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).

3. A 2-year-old is admitted to the hospital with possible encephalitis, and a lumbar puncture is scheduled. Which information should the nurse provide this child concerning the procedure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Describing the side-lying, knees to chest position that must be assumed during the lumbar puncture procedure is essential as it helps the child understand what to expect, promotes cooperation, and reduces anxiety. This position is necessary for the procedure to be performed safely and effectively. Choice B is incorrect because mentioning loud clicking noises may increase the child's anxiety. Choice C is incorrect because there may be restrictions on activity after the procedure, depending on individual cases. Choice D is also incorrect as it provides information about fluid intake restrictions that are not directly related to the procedure itself.

4. A 16-year-old male client who has been treated in the past for a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital. Immediately after admission, he begins to have a grand mal seizure. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a grand mal seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client. Observing the client carefully allows the nurse to monitor the seizure activity, the client's breathing, and any signs of distress without interfering with the seizure process. Restraining the client or placing objects in the mouth can lead to injury and should be avoided. Calling a CODE is not appropriate for a seizure as it is a normal response to the client's condition.

5. What is the priority intervention for a 16-year-old client with a history of depression who is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of acetaminophen?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client who has taken an acetaminophen overdose is to administer N-acetylcysteine promptly. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and helps prevent liver damage. Activated charcoal may be used in certain cases, but N-acetylcysteine takes precedence as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen. Continuous cardiac monitoring and gastric lavage are not the priority interventions for acetaminophen overdose. Administering N-acetylcysteine is crucial to prevent liver damage and address the overdose, making it the most urgent action in this scenario.

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