the mother of a 14 year old who had a below the knee amputation for osteosarcoma tells the nurse that her child is angry and blaming her for allowing
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pediatric HESI

1. The mother of a 14-year old who had a below-the-knee amputation for osteosarcoma tells the nurse that her child is angry and blaming her for allowing the amputation to occur. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the child's anger as part of the coping process helps the mother understand her child's emotional response.

2. The nurse is caring for a 14-year-old adolescent who was admitted to the hospital after a suicide attempt. The adolescent’s mood appears stable, and the healthcare provider has recommended discharge. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to ensure that a safety plan is in place before discharge. A safety plan is essential to assist the adolescent in managing future crises and decreasing the likelihood of another suicide attempt. It provides guidance on coping strategies and resources to help the adolescent stay safe in times of distress.

3. When should the surgical correction of hypospadias in a newborn infant typically be done?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Surgical repairs for hypospadias are typically recommended to be performed before the child is potty trained. This timing helps in avoiding complications, ensures better outcomes, and makes the surgical process smoother. Early correction also minimizes the psychological impact on the child regarding genital differences and can improve long-term psychological well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because repairing hypospadias at one month to prevent bladder infection, after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra, or delaying the repair until school age to reduce castration fears are not the standard recommendations. The optimal timing for surgical correction is before the child is potty trained to achieve the best results and psychological outcomes.

4. A child receives a prescription for amantadine 42 mg PO BID. Amantadine is available as a 50 mg/5 mL syrup. Using a supplied calibrated measuring device, how many mL should be administered per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL per dose, divide the prescribed dose (42 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (50 mg/5 mL) and then convert the result to mL. 42 mg / 50 mg = 0.84. To find the amount in mL, multiply 0.84 by 5 mL, which equals 4.2 mL. Therefore, 4.2 mL should be administered per dose.

5. During a well baby visit, the parents explain that a soft bulge appears in the groin of their 4-month-old son when he cries or strains during stooling. The infant is scheduled for surgical repair of the inguinal hernia in two weeks. What should the parent be instructed to do if the hernia becomes incarcerated prior to the surgery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of an incarcerated inguinal hernia, gentle manipulation can sometimes help in reducing it before surgery. This action should be taken cautiously and immediately followed by seeking medical attention. It is important to note that attempting reduction should be done by a healthcare professional, and parents should be advised to seek urgent medical care if the hernia becomes incarcerated. Using a rectal thermometer to strain during stooling (Choice A) is not the correct approach for an incarcerated hernia and can worsen the condition. Offering oral electrolyte fluids for comfort (Choice C) or giving acetaminophen or aspirin for crying (Choice D) are not appropriate interventions for an incarcerated hernia and may delay necessary medical treatment.

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