Nursing Elites

1. The mother of a 14-year old who had a below-the-knee amputation for osteosarcoma tells the nurse that her child is angry and blaming her for allowing the amputation to occur. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. I will ask the HCP for a psychiatric consult for your child'
• B. This type of acting out behavior is normal for adolescents'
• C. It is important to focus on your child’s needs at this difficult time'
• D. A reaction of anger is your child’s attempt to cope with this loss'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the child's anger as part of the coping process helps the mother understand her child's emotional response.

2. A 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has had a steady decrease in heart rate, now at 76 bpm from 110 bpm four hours ago. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%.
• B. Respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute.
• C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• D. Blood pressure of 70/40.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. The blood pressure of 70/40 is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not indicate immediate danger. A respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. Urine output of 20 mL/hr is low but may not be the most concerning finding in this scenario compared to the drop in blood pressure.

3. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for a 4-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome?

• A. Impaired urinary elimination.
• B. Risk for infection.
• C. Fluid volume excess.
• D. Risk for impaired skin integrity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome, fluid volume excess is a priority nursing diagnosis due to the risk of edema and related complications. This patient may experience significant fluid retention, leading to edema, hypertension, and potential respiratory distress. Monitoring and managing fluid volume excess are crucial in preventing further complications and supporting the child's health during nephrotic syndrome. The other options are not the priority in this case. Impaired urinary elimination is not typically a primary concern in nephrotic syndrome. While infection is a risk due to compromised immunity, fluid volume excess poses a more immediate threat to the child's health. Risk for impaired skin integrity may be a concern secondary to edema, but addressing fluid volume excess takes precedence.

4. A 6-year-old child with a history of asthma is brought to the clinic with complaints of wheezing and shortness of breath. The nurse notes that the child is using accessory muscles to breathe. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator
• B. Obtain a peak flow reading
• C. Apply oxygen
• D. Perform a complete respiratory assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the initial priority as it helps open the child's airways, reducing the wheezing and shortness of breath. This intervention aims to provide immediate relief and improve the child's respiratory distress. Obtaining a peak flow reading or applying oxygen may be necessary after administering the bronchodilator, but the priority is to address the acute symptoms of wheezing and shortness of breath first. Performing a complete respiratory assessment can be done after the immediate intervention of administering the bronchodilator to further evaluate the child's respiratory status.

5. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'how can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
• B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
• C. The lack of the protein dystrophin in the mother can impact the muscle groups of males.
• D. Damage to the spinal cord due to birth trauma from a breech vaginal birth weakens the muscles.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should inform the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family. This genetic condition is caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome. Females are usually carriers of the gene mutation and may pass it on to their sons. Daughters of carrier mothers have a 50% chance of being carriers themselves. Understanding the genetics of DMD can help the parents make informed decisions about family planning and genetic counseling.

Similar Questions