HESI RN TEST BANK

Pediatric HESI

The mother of a 14-year old who had a below-the-knee amputation for osteosarcoma tells the nurse that her child is angry and blaming her for allowing the amputation to occur. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

    A. I will ask the HCP for a psychiatric consult for your child'

    B. This type of acting out behavior is normal for adolescents'

    C. It is important to focus on your child’s needs at this difficult time'

    D. A reaction of anger is your child’s attempt to cope with this loss'

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acknowledging the child's anger as part of the coping process helps the mother understand her child's emotional response.

What should the nurse do first for a 6-year-old with asthma showing a prolonged expiratory phase, wheezing, and 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)?

  • A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
  • B. Encourage the child to cough and take deep breaths.
  • C. Report the findings to the healthcare provider.
  • D. Identify the triggers that precipitated this attack.

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority action in managing an acute asthma exacerbation in a child. Bronchodilators help to relax the muscles around the airways, opening them up and improving breathing. This intervention aims to address the immediate breathing difficulty and should be done promptly to provide relief for the child. Encouraging coughing and deep breaths (choice B) may worsen the child's condition by further constricting the airways. Reporting findings to the healthcare provider (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority in this acute situation. Identifying triggers (choice D) is crucial for long-term asthma management but is not the first step when managing an acute exacerbation.

An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

  • A. Administer morphine sulfate.
  • B. Start IV fluids.
  • C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
  • D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

When caring for a child experiencing severe asthma symptoms, which medication should the practical nurse anticipate being administered first?

  • A. Inhaled corticosteroids.
  • B. Oral corticosteroids.
  • C. Short-acting beta agonists.
  • D. Leukotriene receptor antagonists.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the management of acute asthma exacerbations, the first-line medication for quick relief of bronchoconstriction is a short-acting beta agonist, such as albuterol. These medications help to rapidly open up the airways, providing immediate relief to the patient. Inhaled corticosteroids are more commonly used for long-term control of asthma symptoms, while oral corticosteroids and leukotriene receptor antagonists are often reserved for more severe or chronic cases. Therefore, in a child experiencing severe asthma symptoms, the practical nurse should anticipate the administration of short-acting beta agonists as the initial intervention to provide quick relief and improve breathing.

An adolescent female who is leaning forward with her hands on her knees to breathe tells the practical nurse that she has been using triamcinolone (Azmacort) inhalation aerosol before coming to the clinic. Which action should the PN implement?

  • A. Obtain vital signs and assess breath sounds for wheezing.
  • B. Collect a blood sample for white blood cell count.
  • C. Give the client a nebulizer breathing treatment.
  • D. Administer another dose of Azmacort.

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a patient presents with breathing difficulties, the first action should be to assess vital signs and breath sounds to evaluate the severity of the condition. This assessment will provide crucial information to determine the appropriate course of action and treatment. Collecting a blood sample for a white blood cell count, giving a nebulizer treatment, or administering another dose of Azmacort would not be the initial priority in this situation. Therefore, option A is the correct choice as it focuses on assessing the patient's respiratory status to guide further interventions.

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