Nursing Elites

1. A newly admitted patient is diagnosed with hyponatremia. When making room assignments, the charge nurse should take which action?

• A. Assign the patient to a room near the nurse’s station.
• B. Place the patient in a room nearest to the water fountain.
• C. Place the patient on telemetry to monitor for peaked T waves.
• D. Assign the patient to a semi-private room and place an order for a low-salt diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The patient should be placed near the nurse’s station if confused to allow close monitoring by the staff. To help improve serum sodium levels, water intake is restricted, so a patient with hyponatremia should not be placed near a water fountain. Peaked T waves are a sign of hyperkalemia, not hyponatremia, so telemetry for this purpose is unnecessary. Placing a confused patient in a semi-private room could be disruptive to the other patient. Additionally, the patient needs sodium replacement, not a low-salt diet.

2. A patient has a parenteral nutrition infusion of 25% dextrose. A student nurse asks the nurse why a peripherally inserted central catheter was inserted. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. There is a decreased risk for infection when 25% dextrose is infused through a central line.
• B. The prescribed infusion can be given much more rapidly when the patient has a central line.
• C. The 25% dextrose is hypertonic and will be more rapidly diluted when given through a central line.
• D. The required blood glucose monitoring is more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 25% dextrose solution is hypertonic. Shrinkage of red blood cells can occur when solutions with dextrose concentrations greater than 10% are administered IV. Blood glucose testing is not more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line. The infection risk is higher with a central catheter than with peripheral IV lines. Hypertonic or concentrated IV solutions are not given rapidly.

3. A patient receives 3% NaCl solution for correction of hyponatremia. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor while the patient is receiving this infusion?

• A. Lung sounds
• B. Urinary output
• C. Peripheral pulses
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lung sounds. Hypertonic solutions like 3% NaCl can cause water retention, leading to fluid excess. Monitoring lung sounds is crucial as crackles may indicate pulmonary edema, a serious manifestation of fluid excess. While monitoring urinary output, peripheral pulses, and peripheral edema are also important when administering hypertonic solutions, they do not provide immediate clues to acute respiratory or cardiac decompensation like lung sounds.

4. A patient who had a transverse colectomy for diverticulosis 18 hours ago has nasogastric suction and is complaining of anxiety and incisional pain. The patient’s respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute and the arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate respiratory alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Discontinue the nasogastric suction.
• B. Give the patient the PRN IV morphine sulfate 4 mg.
• C. Notify the health care provider about the ABG results.
• D. Teach the patient how to take slow, deep breaths when anxious.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient’s respiratory alkalosis is caused by the increased respiratory rate associated with pain and anxiety. The nurse’s first action should be to medicate the patient for pain. Although the nasogastric suction may contribute to the alkalosis, it is not appropriate to discontinue the tube when the patient needs gastric suction. The health care provider may be notified about the ABGs but is likely to instruct the nurse to medicate for pain. The patient will not be able to take slow, deep breaths when experiencing pain.

5. An older patient receiving iso-osmolar continuous tube feedings develops restlessness, agitation, and weakness. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

• A. K+ 3.4 mEq/L (3.4 mmol/L)
• B. Ca+2 7.8 mg/dL (1.95 mmol/L)
• C. Na+ 154 mEq/L (154 mmol/L)
• D. PO4-3 4.8 mg/dL (1.55 mmol/L)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The elevated serum sodium level (154 mEq/L) is consistent with the patient's neurologic symptoms of restlessness, agitation, and weakness, indicating a need for immediate action to prevent complications like seizures. The potassium level (3.4 mEq/L) and calcium level (7.8 mg/dL) are slightly off from normal but do not require immediate action. The phosphate level (4.8 mg/dL) is normal and not related to the symptoms presented by the patient.

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