Nursing Elites

1. How should the nurse interpret the following arterial blood gas results for a patient who had a tracheostomy placed after a motor vehicle crash: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's pH of 7.48 indicates alkalosis, and the low PaCO2 of 32 mm Hg suggests a respiratory cause. The HCO3 level is normal, ruling out metabolic causes. Therefore, the correct interpretation is respiratory alkalosis. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the pH and PaCO2 values provided.

2. The long-term care nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of protein supplements for an older resident who has a low serum total protein level. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient’s condition has improved?

• A. Hematocrit 28%
• B. Absence of skin tenting
• C. Decreased peripheral edema
• D. Blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The decrease in peripheral edema indicates an improvement in the patient’s protein status. Edema is caused by low oncotic pressure in individuals with low serum protein levels. Good skin turgor is an indicator of fluid balance, not protein status. A low hematocrit could be caused by poor protein intake. Blood pressure does not provide a useful clinical tool for monitoring protein status.

3. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
• B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
• C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
• D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.

4. A newly admitted patient is diagnosed with hyponatremia. When making room assignments, the charge nurse should take which action?

• A. Assign the patient to a room near the nurse’s station.
• B. Place the patient in a room nearest to the water fountain.
• C. Place the patient on telemetry to monitor for peaked T waves.
• D. Assign the patient to a semi-private room and place an order for a low-salt diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The patient should be placed near the nurse’s station if confused to allow close monitoring by the staff. To help improve serum sodium levels, water intake is restricted, so a patient with hyponatremia should not be placed near a water fountain. Peaked T waves are a sign of hyperkalemia, not hyponatremia, so telemetry for this purpose is unnecessary. Placing a confused patient in a semi-private room could be disruptive to the other patient. Additionally, the patient needs sodium replacement, not a low-salt diet.

5. When assessing a pregnant patient with eclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate, which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

• A. The bibasilar breath sounds are decreased.
• B. The patellar and triceps reflexes are absent.
• C. The patient has been sleeping most of the day.
• D. The patient reports feeling 'sick to my stomach.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of patellar and triceps reflexes indicates potential magnesium toxicity, requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and lethargy are common side effects of elevated magnesium levels and should be reported, but they are not as critical as the loss of deep tendon reflexes. Decreased breath sounds suggest the need for coughing and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis, which is important but not as urgent as addressing magnesium toxicity.

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