Nursing Elites

1. A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal meningitis. Which admission orders should the nurse do first?

• A. Institute seizure precautions
• B. Monitor neurologic status every hour
• C. Place in respiratory/secretion precautions
• D. Cefotaxime IV 50 mg/kg/day divided q6h

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the child in respiratory/secretion precautions first. Meningococcal meningitis is highly contagious, and respiratory precautions are essential to prevent the spread of the infection. Seizure precautions may be necessary but are not the priority upon admission. Monitoring neurologic status is important but not the initial action needed. While antibiotic therapy like Cefotaxime is crucial, implementing isolation precautions to prevent transmission takes precedence in this situation.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who requires a mechanical ventilator for breathing. The high-pressure alarm goes off on the ventilator. What is the first action the nurse should perform?

• A. Disconnect the client from the ventilator and use a manual resuscitation bag
• B. Perform a quick assessment of the client's condition
• C. Call the respiratory therapist for help
• D. Press the alarm reset button on the ventilator

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When the high-pressure alarm on a ventilator goes off, the nurse's initial action should be to perform a quick assessment of the client's condition. This assessment helps in promptly identifying the cause of the alarm, such as mucus plugging, kinking of the tubing, or other issues. By assessing the client first, the nurse can determine the appropriate intervention needed to address the alarm. Choices A and D are incorrect because disconnecting the client from the ventilator or pressing the alarm reset button should not be the initial actions without assessing the client's condition. While calling the respiratory therapist for help could be beneficial, assessing the client's condition should be the nurse's priority to address the immediate concern.

3. The parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin) have received discharge instructions from the nurse. Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?

• A. We will call the healthcare provider if the child develops acne.
• B. Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal.
• C. We will skip the next dose if vomiting or fever occurs.
• D. When our child is seizure-free for 6 months, we can stop the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Proper oral hygiene, including brushing and flossing carefully after every meal, is essential for children on phenytoin to prevent gingival hyperplasia, a common side effect. Choice A is incorrect because acne is not a common side effect of phenytoin and does not require immediate healthcare provider notification. Choice C is incorrect because vomiting or fever should not prompt skipping a dose without consulting the healthcare provider first. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin should never be done abruptly or without healthcare provider guidance, even if the child is seizure-free for 6 months.

4. A client is diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax necessitating the insertion of a chest tube. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide this client?

• A. The tube will drain fluid from your chest.
• B. The tube will remove excess air from your chest.
• C. The tube controls the amount of air that enters your chest.
• D. The tube will seal the hole in your lung.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The tube will remove excess air from your chest.' In a spontaneous pneumothorax, air accumulates in the pleural space, causing lung collapse. The chest tube is inserted to remove this excess air, allowing the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of a chest tube in pneumothorax is to evacuate air, not fluid, control air entry, or seal a lung hole.

5. Although non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen (Motrin) are beneficial in managing arthritis pain, the nurse should caution clients about which of the following common side effects?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Constipation
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Occult bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Occult bleeding. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen are known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including occult bleeding. Occult bleeding refers to bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract that may not be visible in the stool, leading to potential complications like anemia. Urinary incontinence (choice A) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Constipation (choice B) is also not a typical side effect associated with NSAIDs. Nystagmus (choice C) is an involuntary eye movement and is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Therefore, the nurse should caution clients about the risk of occult bleeding when using NSAIDs for arthritis pain management.

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