Nursing Elites

1. A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal meningitis. Which admission orders should the nurse do first?

• A. Institute seizure precautions
• B. Monitor neurologic status every hour
• C. Place in respiratory/secretion precautions
• D. Cefotaxime IV 50 mg/kg/day divided q6h

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the child in respiratory/secretion precautions first. Meningococcal meningitis is highly contagious, and respiratory precautions are essential to prevent the spread of the infection. Seizure precautions may be necessary but are not the priority upon admission. Monitoring neurologic status is important but not the initial action needed. While antibiotic therapy like Cefotaxime is crucial, implementing isolation precautions to prevent transmission takes precedence in this situation.

2. When speaking with a group of teens, which side effect of chemotherapy for cancer would the nurse expect this group to be more interested in discussing?

• A. Mouth sores
• B. Fatigue
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Hair loss

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hair loss is the correct answer. Teens are often more concerned about hair loss because of its visible impact and social implications. While mouth sores, fatigue, and diarrhea are also common side effects of chemotherapy, hair loss tends to be a significant concern for teens due to its effect on self-image and confidence.

3. A nurse checks a client who is on a volume-cycled ventilator. Which finding indicates that the client may need suctioning?

• A. drowsiness
• B. complaint of nausea
• C. pulse rate of 92
• D. restlessness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Restlessness is often a sign of respiratory distress or secretion build-up, indicating the need for suctioning. While drowsiness (choice A) can be a sign of hypoxia, it is not as immediate an indication for suctioning as restlessness. Complaint of nausea (choice B) and a pulse rate of 92 (choice C) are not directly related to the need for suctioning in a client on a volume-cycled ventilator.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just returned from surgery. Which of these findings requires the most immediate attention?

• A. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
• C. Temperature of 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit
• D. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit is slightly elevated but not immediately critical. In a postoperative patient, an elevated temperature could indicate an infection, which requires prompt attention to prevent complications. The respiratory rate, blood pressure, and heart rate within normal ranges are important to monitor but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as an elevated temperature does.

5. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

• A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
• B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
• C. A client who had 3 incontinent diarrhea stools
• D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.

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