Nursing Elites

1. A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture?

• A. Blurred vision.
• B. Shoulder pain.
• C. Abdominal pain.
• D. Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign. Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear) are signs of a basilar skull fracture, indicating the need to assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a halo sign with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the ears or nose. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because blurred vision, shoulder pain, and abdominal pain are not typically associated with a basilar skull fracture.

2. The instructor is teaching a prenatal class about the importance of folic acid. Which outcome indicates that the teaching was effective?

• A. participants can list foods high in folic acid
• B. participants plan to take folic acid supplements daily
• C. participants understand the risks of folic acid deficiency
• D. participants demonstrate how to read nutrition labels for folic acid content

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because planning to take folic acid supplements daily is a proactive step towards preventing folic acid deficiency and reducing the risk of neural tube defects in pregnancy. While choice A is important for dietary knowledge, the direct action of taking supplements is more effective. Choice C, understanding the risks, is good but does not ensure action. Choice D, reading nutrition labels, is helpful but doesn't guarantee intake of folic acid.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L.
• D. Arterial blood pH of 7.30.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An arterial blood pH of 7.30 indicates the client is in acidosis, which is a life-threatening condition in DKA. Immediate intervention is required to correct the acidosis and prevent further complications such as organ failure or coma. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL is elevated but not an immediate threat to life in comparison to acidosis. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate intervention in the context of DKA.

4. The client with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught about insulin administration by the nurse. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?

• A. I will inject my insulin into my abdomen for the fastest absorption.
• B. I will rotate injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy.
• C. I will store my insulin in the refrigerator at all times.
• D. I will rotate injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Insulin should not be stored in the refrigerator at all times; it should be kept at room temperature when in use to avoid irritation at the injection site. Storing insulin in the refrigerator can cause it to thicken and may lead to discomfort upon injection. Choices A and D are correct statements as injecting insulin into the abdomen for faster absorption and rotating injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy are appropriate insulin administration techniques. Therefore, the client does not need further teaching on these aspects.

5. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day.
• B. Remove the brace while sleeping.
• C. Wear the brace directly against the skin.
• D. Remove the brace while eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.

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