Nursing Elites

1. A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture?

• A. Blurred vision.
• B. Shoulder pain.
• C. Abdominal pain.
• D. Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign. Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear) are signs of a basilar skull fracture, indicating the need to assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a halo sign with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the ears or nose. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because blurred vision, shoulder pain, and abdominal pain are not typically associated with a basilar skull fracture.

2. When visiting a community health clinic, a client's blood pressure is measured at 146/94. What information should the nurse provide the client?

• A. Participate in an exercise program for 6 weeks
• B. Obtain blood pressure daily for 2 weeks
• C. Increase dietary intake of omega-3 fatty acids
• D. Begin a low sodium diet immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to begin a low sodium diet immediately. High sodium intake can contribute to elevated blood pressure levels. By reducing sodium intake, blood pressure can be effectively lowered. Option A, participating in an exercise program, is beneficial for overall health but may not provide immediate impact on blood pressure. Option B, obtaining blood pressure daily for 2 weeks, may not address the underlying cause or provide immediate intervention. Option C, increasing dietary intake of omega-3 fatty acids, though beneficial for heart health, may not have an immediate impact on lowering blood pressure compared to reducing sodium intake.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just returned from hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Weight gain of 2 pounds.
• B. Dizziness.
• C. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. Heart rate of 88 beats per minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dizziness after hemodialysis can indicate hypovolemia, hypotension, or other complications that require immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration or adverse events. Weight gain of 2 pounds may not be immediately concerning post-hemodialysis. A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg is slightly elevated but may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by symptoms. A heart rate of 88 beats per minute falls within the normal range and may not be an immediate cause for concern after hemodialysis.

4. A teenage boy with a history of recurring atopic dermatitis (eczema) tells the school nurse that he wants to play high school football. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. encourage the teenager to join the swim team instead of the football team
• B. notify the parents of the problems associated with perspiration for those with eczema
• C. tell the teenager to shower with a non-perfumed soap immediately after practice
• D. inform the football coach of the teenager's skin condition and its manifestations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to advise the teenager to shower with a non-perfumed soap immediately after practice. This recommendation can help reduce the risk of eczema flare-ups by removing sweat and irritants from the skin. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the specific concerns related to eczema and football. Choice B, notifying the parents of perspiration problems, is not as direct as instructing the teenager on proper skincare. Choice D, informing the football coach, is not the most immediate and relevant action to address the teenager's individual needs.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?

• A. To increase gastric motility.
• B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
• C. To reduce secretions.
• D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.

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