a 6 year old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears the nurse suspec
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Community Health HESI

1. A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign. Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear) are signs of a basilar skull fracture, indicating the need to assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a halo sign with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the ears or nose. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because blurred vision, shoulder pain, and abdominal pain are not typically associated with a basilar skull fracture.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An arterial blood pH of 7.30 indicates the client is in acidosis, which is a life-threatening condition in DKA. Immediate intervention is required to correct the acidosis and prevent further complications such as organ failure or coma. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL is elevated but not an immediate threat to life in comparison to acidosis. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate intervention in the context of DKA.

3. The nurse is preparing a client for a scheduled surgical procedure. What client statement should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client's statement of drinking juice after midnight should be reported to the healthcare provider. Consuming liquids after midnight can increase the risk of aspiration during surgery under general anesthesia. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical to report for the client's safety during the surgical procedure. Anxiety about surgery, latex allergy, and postoperative nausea, although important for overall care, do not pose immediate risks during the surgical preparation as the intake of fluids does.

4. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis in the morning. Which pre-dialysis medication should the nurse withhold until after the dialysis treatment is completed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss, and giving it before hemodialysis can lead to excessive fluid loss during the treatment, potentially causing hypovolemia. Withholding furosemide until after the dialysis session helps in preventing this complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because calcium carbonate, spironolactone, and multivitamins are not typically contraindicated before hemodialysis in clients with chronic renal failure.

5. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of a myocardial infarction (heart attack) in individuals with coronary artery disease. This finding indicates that the heart muscle may not be receiving adequate oxygen, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage or complications. The other assessment findings (heart rate of 90 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg) are within normal limits and do not suggest an acute, life-threatening condition like myocardial infarction.

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