Nursing Elites

1. The client is unable to void, and the plan of care sets an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document to indicate a successful outcome?

• A. Drinks adequate fluids.
• B. Void without difficulty.
• C. Feels less thirsty.
• D. Drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift indicates a fluid intake of 1200 mL, which exceeds the minimum objective of at least 1000 mL. The client meeting or exceeding the fluid intake goal is a clear indicator of a successful outcome. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because simply drinking adequate fluids, voiding without difficulty, or feeling less thirsty do not directly demonstrate meeting the specific objective of fluid intake set in the care plan.

2. A client with a head injury is admitted to the hospital. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15.
• B. Pupils are equal and reactive to light.
• C. Client is drowsy but arousable.
• D. Client does not remember the events leading to the injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a head injury, being drowsy but still arousable can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, which necessitates immediate intervention. This presentation may indicate a deterioration in neurological status, requiring prompt assessment and management to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of an immediate need for intervention in this scenario. A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness; pupils being equal and reactive to light suggest intact cranial nerve function, and memory loss about the injury event is common in head injuries and does not necessarily warrant immediate intervention.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Chest pain.
• B. Shortness of breath.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Cyanosis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cyanosis is a late sign of hypoxemia and indicates severe oxygen deprivation, necessitating immediate intervention in a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are also concerning symptoms in pulmonary embolism; however, cyanosis signifies critical oxygen deficiency and warrants urgent attention to prevent further complications.

4. A male client leaves his job at a nearby restaurant and visits the health clinic where he is diagnosed with viral conjunctivitis. While receiving discharge instructions from the nurse, the client states that he is feeling much better and plans to return to work for the afternoon shift. How should the nurse respond?

• A. advise the client to wear a face mask around other people
• B. ask the client what type of work he does at the restaurant
• C. instruct the client to use dark glasses if lighting is bright
• D. explain that the client should stay home for the next few days

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: explain that the client should stay home for the next few days. Viral conjunctivitis is highly contagious, and the client should avoid close contact with others until it resolves. Returning to work while still contagious can lead to the spread of the infection to coworkers and customers. Choice A is incorrect because wearing a face mask may not provide sufficient protection against spreading the virus in a close work environment. Choice B is irrelevant to the situation as the focus should be on the client's health and preventing the spread of the infection. Choice C is also unrelated to the management of viral conjunctivitis and does not address the contagious nature of the condition.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's arterial blood gases show a pH of 7.35.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client's breath sounds are clear.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute indicates effective oxygen therapy. In pneumonia, the respiratory rate typically increases due to the body's effort to improve oxygenation. Option B (pH of 7.35) is related to acid-base balance, not specifically indicating oxygen therapy effectiveness. Option C (oxygen saturation of 92%) is below the normal range (95-100%), suggesting the need for oxygen therapy. Option D (clear breath sounds) is a positive finding but not a direct indicator of oxygen therapy effectiveness.

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