Nursing Elites

1. A 54-year-old male client and his wife were informed this morning that he has terminal cancer. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most beneficial?

• A. Ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client's care
• B. Provide the wife with information about hospice
• C. Encourage the wife to visit after painful treatments are completed
• D. Refer the wife to a support group for family members of those dying of cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most beneficial nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client's care. Involving the spouse in the care of the terminally ill client can provide comfort, support, and a sense of contribution during a challenging time. Providing information about hospice (B) is important but may not be the immediate priority. Encouraging the wife to visit after treatments are completed (C) may delay her involvement in the care. Referring her to a support group (D) is a good idea but might be more suitable at a later stage.

2. The home health nurse cares for an alert and oriented older adult patient with a history of dehydration. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient related to fluid intake?

• A. Increase fluids if your mouth feels dry.
• B. More fluids are needed if you feel thirsty.
• C. Drink more fluids in the late evening hours.
• D. If you feel lethargic or confused, you need more to drink.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. An alert, older patient can self-assess for signs of dehydration like dry mouth. This instruction is appropriate as it encourages the patient to respond to early signs of dehydration. Choice B is incorrect because the thirst mechanism decreases with age and feeling thirsty may not accurately indicate the need for fluids. Choice C is incorrect as many older patients prefer to limit evening fluid intake to enhance sleep quality. Choice D is incorrect because an older adult who is lethargic or confused may not be able to accurately assess their need for fluids.

3. An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
• B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
• C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
• D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.

4. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. Patient with a serum potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L who is complaining of abdominal cramping
• B. Patient with a serum sodium level of 145 mEq/L who has a dry mouth and is asking for a glass of water
• C. Patient with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
• D. Patient with a serum phosphorus level of 4.5 mg/dL who has multiple soft tissue calcium-phosphate precipitates

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is patient C with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. The low magnesium level and neuromuscular irritability suggest that the patient may be at risk for seizures, which are life-threatening. Assessing and addressing this patient's condition promptly is crucial to prevent complications. Patients A, B, and D have mild electrolyte disturbances or symptoms that require attention, but they are not at immediate risk for life-threatening complications like seizures, unlike patient C.

5. A patient has a parenteral nutrition infusion of 25% dextrose. A student nurse asks the nurse why a peripherally inserted central catheter was inserted. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. There is a decreased risk for infection when 25% dextrose is infused through a central line.
• B. The prescribed infusion can be given much more rapidly when the patient has a central line.
• C. The 25% dextrose is hypertonic and will be more rapidly diluted when given through a central line.
• D. The required blood glucose monitoring is more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 25% dextrose solution is hypertonic. Shrinkage of red blood cells can occur when solutions with dextrose concentrations greater than 10% are administered IV. Blood glucose testing is not more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line. The infection risk is higher with a central catheter than with peripheral IV lines. Hypertonic or concentrated IV solutions are not given rapidly.

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