Nursing Elites

1. A 54-year-old male client and his wife were informed this morning that he has terminal cancer. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most beneficial?

• A. Ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client's care
• B. Provide the wife with information about hospice
• C. Encourage the wife to visit after painful treatments are completed
• D. Refer the wife to a support group for family members of those dying of cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most beneficial nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client's care. Involving the spouse in the care of the terminally ill client can provide comfort, support, and a sense of contribution during a challenging time. Providing information about hospice (B) is important but may not be the immediate priority. Encouraging the wife to visit after treatments are completed (C) may delay her involvement in the care. Referring her to a support group (D) is a good idea but might be more suitable at a later stage.

2. A patient who is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic for the treatment of hypertension complains of generalized weakness. It is most appropriate for the nurse to take which action?

• A. Assess for facial muscle spasms.
• B. Ask the patient about loose stools.
• C. Suggest that the patient avoid orange juice with meals.
• D. Ask the healthcare provider to order a basic metabolic panel.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Generalized weakness is a sign of hypokalemia, a potential side effect of potassium-wasting diuretics. By requesting a basic metabolic panel, the nurse can assess the patient's potassium levels. Facial muscle spasms are associated with hypocalcemia, not hypokalemia. Advising the patient to avoid orange juice, which is high in potassium, would be counterproductive if the patient is hypokalemic. Loose stools are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

3. The nurse in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague's assignment. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Communicate the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse
• B. Send an email to facility administration reporting the action
• C. Write an anonymous complaint to a professional website
• D. Post a comment about the action on a staff discussion board

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Viewing the EHR of a client who is not under your care is a violation of HIPAA regulations, regardless of the client's social status or your curiosity. The appropriate action to take in this situation is to communicate the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse. The charge nurse can then escalate the issue through the appropriate channels within the organization. Reporting to the charge nurse ensures that the incident is handled internally and in accordance with organizational policies and procedures. Sending an email to facility administration, writing an anonymous complaint to a professional website, or posting a comment on a staff discussion board are not the recommended actions as they may not address the issue effectively and could potentially violate confidentiality further.

4. When assessing a pregnant patient with eclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate, which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

• A. The bibasilar breath sounds are decreased.
• B. The patellar and triceps reflexes are absent.
• C. The patient has been sleeping most of the day.
• D. The patient reports feeling 'sick to my stomach.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of patellar and triceps reflexes indicates potential magnesium toxicity, requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and lethargy are common side effects of elevated magnesium levels and should be reported, but they are not as critical as the loss of deep tendon reflexes. Decreased breath sounds suggest the need for coughing and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis, which is important but not as urgent as addressing magnesium toxicity.

5. An older adult patient who is malnourished presents to the emergency department with a serum protein level of 5.2 g/dL. The nurse would expect which clinical manifestation?

• A. Pallor
• B. Edema
• C. Confusion
• D. Restlessness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. The normal range for total protein is 6.4 to 8.3 g/dL. Low serum protein levels cause a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure and allow fluid to remain in interstitial tissues, causing edema. Confusion, restlessness, and pallor are not associated with low serum protein levels. Pallor is more commonly seen in anemia, confusion and restlessness may be related to other issues like electrolyte imbalances or neurological conditions.

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