HESI RN
Adult Health 1 HESI
1. The nurse is caring for a patient who has a central venous access device (CVAD). Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Avoid using friction when cleaning around the CVAD insertion site.
- B. Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications.
- C. Obtain an order from the healthcare provider to change the CVAD dressing.
- D. Position the patient’s face away from the CVAD during injection cap changes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because using the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications helps remove debris from the CVAD lumen and decreases the risk for clotting. Choice A is incorrect because friction should be used when cleaning the CVAD insertion site to decrease infection risk. Choice C is incorrect because obtaining an order from the healthcare provider to change the CVAD dressing is not necessary; the dressing should be changed when damp, loose, or visibly soiled. Choice D is incorrect because the patient should face away from the CVAD during cap changes to minimize the risk of contamination.
2. Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is prescribed for a patient. Which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching about this medication has been effective?
- A. I will try to drink at least 8 glasses of water every day.
- B. I will use a salt substitute to decrease my sodium intake.
- C. I will increase my intake of potassium-containing foods.
- D. I will drink apple juice instead of orange juice for breakfast.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so patients should choose low-potassium foods. Apple juice is a better choice than orange juice in this case as it is lower in potassium. Option A is incorrect because increasing fluid intake excessively is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as salt substitutes are high in potassium, which should be avoided. Option C is incorrect because patients on spironolactone should avoid increasing their potassium intake.
3. A patient who is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient's pH is below the normal range (7.35-7.45), and the HCO3 is also below the normal range (22-26 mEq/L), indicating an acidic environment, which is consistent with metabolic acidosis. The ABGs provided do not support respiratory acidosis or alkalosis, as the PaCO2 is within the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) despite the patient's deep, rapid respirations. Therefore, the correct interpretation is metabolic acidosis.
4. A postoperative patient who had surgery for a perforated gastric ulcer has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days. The patient now has a serum sodium level of 127 mEq/L (127 mmol/L). Which prescribed therapy should the nurse question?
- A. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr.
- B. Administer IV morphine sulfate 4 mg every 2 hours PRN.
- C. Give IV metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea.
- D. Administer 3% saline if serum sodium decreases to less than 128 mEq/L.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr because the patient's gastric suction has been depleting electrolytes, leading to hyponatremia. Therefore, the IV solution should include electrolyte replacement. Solutions like lactated Ringer’s solution would usually be ordered. The other choices (B, C, and D) are appropriate for a postoperative patient with gastric suction, addressing pain management, nausea control, and correcting hyponatremia if it drops below a certain level.
5. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of frequent, watery stools for the last 2 days. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Obtain the baseline weight
- B. Check the patient’s blood pressure
- C. Draw blood for serum electrolyte levels
- D. Ask about any extremity numbness or tingling
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the patient’s blood pressure. Given the patient's symptoms of frequent, watery stools, there is a concern for fluid volume deficit. Assessing the blood pressure helps determine the patient's perfusion status, which is crucial in managing fluid volume deficits. While obtaining baseline weight, drawing blood for serum electrolyte levels, and asking about extremity numbness or tingling are important assessments, checking the blood pressure takes precedence as it provides immediate information on the patient's circulatory status.
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