Nursing Elites

1. A 6-year-old child is diagnosed with rheumatic fever and demonstrates associated chorea (sudden aimless movements of the arms and legs). Which information should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. Muscle tension decreases with fine motor skill projects, so these activities should be encouraged.
• B. The chorea or movements are temporary and will eventually disappear.
• C. Permanent lifestyle changes are not needed to promote safety in the home.
• D. Consistent discipline is not directly related to controlling the movements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chorea, or sudden aimless movements associated with rheumatic fever, is temporary in nature and will eventually disappear on its own. It is important for the nurse to reassure the parents that these movements are part of the condition and typically resolve over time without the need for permanent lifestyle changes or strict discipline. Providing accurate information and reassurance to the parents can help alleviate concerns and promote understanding of the condition's course. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because muscle tension, permanent lifestyle changes, and consistent discipline are not directly related to the resolution of chorea in rheumatic fever.

2. During a woman's first prenatal visit, the nurse reviews her health care record, noting a history of chickenpox as a child and syphilis as a teenager. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Obtain blood and urine for prenatal screens.
• B. Schedule prenatal visits to occur monthly.
• C. Explain common complications of pregnancy.
• D. Obtain baseline blood pressure and weight.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obtaining blood and urine for prenatal screens is crucial in identifying any potential infections or conditions that may require monitoring throughout the pregnancy. Screening for infections such as syphilis is essential to ensure appropriate management and prevent adverse outcomes. This action helps in early detection and timely intervention, promoting the health and well-being of both the mother and the developing fetus. The other options, while important during prenatal care, are not as critical as obtaining prenatal screens to assess for any existing infections that could impact the pregnancy.

3. What action should be implemented when preparing to measure the fundal height of a pregnant client?

• A. Have the client empty her bladder.
• B. Request the client lie on her left side.
• C. Perform Leopold's maneuvers first.
• D. Give the client some cold juice to drink.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when preparing to measure the fundal height of a pregnant client is to have the client empty her bladder. This is essential to ensure an accurate measurement because a full bladder can displace the uterus and affect the accuracy of the assessment. Choice B is incorrect because the client should lie flat on her back, not on her left side, to measure fundal height accurately. Choice C is incorrect because Leopold's maneuvers are used to determine the position of the fetus, not to measure fundal height. Choice D is incorrect as giving the client cold juice is not necessary for measuring fundal height.

4. When assessing a client who is at 12-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN recommends that she and her husband consider attending childbirth preparation classes. When is the best time for the couple to attend these classes?

• A. At 16 weeks gestation.
• B. At 20 weeks gestation.
• C. At 24 weeks gestation.
• D. At 30 weeks gestation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best time for the couple to attend childbirth preparation classes is around 30 weeks gestation, which is during the third trimester. Attending classes at this time allows the couple to learn essential information and skills as labor and delivery are approaching, maximizing the benefit of the classes. Option A is too early in the second trimester, and the couple might forget important details by the time labor approaches. Option B is also early in the second trimester, and attending later allows for better preparation. Option C is still in the second trimester, and waiting until the third trimester provides more practical knowledge closer to delivery.

5. The client is 24 weeks gestation and reports increased thirst and urination. Which diagnostic test result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Hemoglobin A1C.
• B. Postprandial blood glucose test.
• C. Oral glucose tolerance test.
• D. Fasting blood glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result is indicative of gestational diabetes. This test is crucial in diagnosing gestational diabetes as it evaluates how well the body processes glucose after a sugary drink. Reporting abnormal results promptly allows for timely intervention and management to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. The other options are not the primary tests used to diagnose gestational diabetes. Hemoglobin A1C is not recommended for diagnosing gestational diabetes as it reflects long-term glucose control. Postprandial blood glucose and fasting blood glucose tests are not as sensitive as the oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosing gestational diabetes.

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