Nursing Elites

1. A 6-year-old child is diagnosed with rheumatic fever and demonstrates associated chorea (sudden aimless movements of the arms and legs). Which information should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. Muscle tension decreases with fine motor skill projects, so these activities should be encouraged.
• B. The chorea or movements are temporary and will eventually disappear.
• C. Permanent lifestyle changes are not needed to promote safety in the home.
• D. Consistent discipline is not directly related to controlling the movements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chorea, or sudden aimless movements associated with rheumatic fever, is temporary in nature and will eventually disappear on its own. It is important for the nurse to reassure the parents that these movements are part of the condition and typically resolve over time without the need for permanent lifestyle changes or strict discipline. Providing accurate information and reassurance to the parents can help alleviate concerns and promote understanding of the condition's course. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because muscle tension, permanent lifestyle changes, and consistent discipline are not directly related to the resolution of chorea in rheumatic fever.

2. A 6-week-old infant diagnosed with pyloric stenosis has recently developed projectile vomiting. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the infant is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Weak cry without tears.
• B. Bulging fontanel.
• C. Visible peristaltic wave.
• D. Palpable mass in the right upper quadrant.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In infants, a weak cry without tears is a classic sign of dehydration. Tears are produced by the lacrimal glands, and reduced tear production is a result of dehydration. This assessment finding should alert the nurse to the infant's dehydration status, requiring prompt intervention to prevent further complications.

3. A new mother calls the nurse stating that she wants to start feeding her 6-month-old child something besides breast milk, but is concerned that the infant is too young to start eating solid foods. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Advise the mother to wait at least another month before starting any solid foods.
• B. Instruct the mother to offer a few spoons of 2 or 3 pureed fruits at each meal.
• C. Reassure the mother that the infant is old enough to eat iron-fortified cereal.
• D. Encourage the mother to schedule a developmental assessment of the infant.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: At 6 months, infants are generally ready to start eating iron-fortified cereals as their iron stores begin to deplete. Introducing iron-fortified cereals at this age helps meet the infant's nutritional needs, particularly for iron, which becomes deficient as the infant's iron reserves diminish. It is a safe and appropriate first food to introduce to infants around 6 months of age, along with continued breastfeeding or formula feeding. Choice A is incorrect because waiting another month is not necessary if the infant is 6 months old. Choice B is incorrect as introducing pureed fruits as the first food may not provide the necessary iron that the infant needs at this stage. Choice D is also incorrect as scheduling a developmental assessment is not indicated solely based on the desire to start solid foods; it is more appropriate to reassure the mother about starting iron-fortified cereal.

4. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as

• A. a cephalhematoma, caused by birth trauma and may last up to 8 weeks.
• B. a subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage to prevent further complications.
• C. molding, caused by pressure during labor and will disappear within 2 to 3 days.
• D. a subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.

5. A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The LPN/LVN plans to monitor for which primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?

• A. Drowsiness and bradycardia.
• B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations.
• C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness.
• D. A flushed, warm feeling and a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate are related to its beta-adrenergic effects. Tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of terbutaline sulfate. Tachycardia is expected due to the drug's beta-agonist properties, while nervousness can result from the stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors. It is crucial to monitor the client for these side effects to ensure early recognition and appropriate management.

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