Nursing Elites

1. During a routine first-trimester prenatal exam, a pregnant client tells the nurse that she has noticed an increase in vaginal discharge that is white, thin, and watery. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Recommend explaining the normal physiological changes during pregnancy.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the complaint.
• C. Inform her that this is a normal physiological change.
• D. Prepare to provide education on vaginal health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The increased vaginal discharge described by the pregnant client, which is white, thin, and watery, is a common physiological change during pregnancy. It is typically normal and attributed to hormonal fluctuations. The nurse should reassure the client that this type of discharge is expected during pregnancy and does not typically indicate an issue requiring medical intervention or treatment.

2. A couple has been trying to conceive for nine months without success. Which information obtained from the clients is most likely to have an impact on the couple's ability to conceive a child?

• A. Both partners have a daily exercise regimen that includes running four miles each morning.
• B. The couple has a history of having sexual intercourse 2 to 3 times per week.
• C. The woman's menstrual period occurs every 35 days.
• D. They use lubricants with each sexual encounter to decrease friction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Using lubricants during sexual encounters can potentially impact the couple's ability to conceive a child. Some lubricants may contain substances that are spermicidal or alter the vaginal environment, affecting sperm motility and fertility.

3. At 35 weeks gestation, a client complains of 'pain whenever the baby moves.' The nurse notes a temperature of 101.2 F (38.4 C) with severe abdominal or uterine tenderness on palpation. What condition do these findings indicate?

• A. Round ligament strain.
• B. Chorioamnionitis.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Viral infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of fever and abdominal tenderness, along with the gestational age, are classic signs of chorioamnionitis, an infection of the amniotic fluid. Chorioamnionitis is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and treatment to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Round ligament strain (Choice A) typically presents with sharp, stabbing pain on the sides of the abdomen and is not associated with fever or uterine tenderness. Abruptio placentae (Choice C) presents with sudden-onset vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain, often with a board-like uterus. Viral infections (Choice D) may present with a variety of symptoms, but the combination of fever, abdominal tenderness, and gestational age in this scenario points more towards chorioamnionitis.

4. A two-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit
• B. Administer the scheduled dose
• C. Calculate the safe dose range
• D. Review the serum digoxin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the scheduled dose of digoxin. A heart rate of 128 bpm in a two-year-old child with heart failure falls within the safe range for digoxin administration. It indicates that the child's heart rate is not excessively low, which could be a concern for administering digoxin. Therefore, proceeding with the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is already obtained. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not required as the heart rate is within the safe range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the heart rate indicates that administering the next dose is appropriate.

5. One hour after giving birth to an 8-pound infant, a client's lochia rubra has increased from small to large, and her fundus is boggy despite massage. The client's pulse is 84 beats/minute, and blood pressure is 156/96. The healthcare provider prescribes Methergine 0.2 mg IM × 1. What action should the healthcare provider take immediately?

• A. Give the medication as prescribed and monitor for efficacy.
• B. Encourage the client to breastfeed rather than bottle-feed.
• C. Have the client empty her bladder and massage the fundus.
• D. Call the healthcare provider to question the prescription.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare provider to take immediately is to call the healthcare provider to question the prescription. Methergine is contraindicated in clients with hypertension due to its potential to elevate blood pressure further. In this scenario, the client's blood pressure is already elevated at 156/96, making it unsafe to administer Methergine. The LPN/LVN should advocate for the client's safety by questioning the prescription to prevent potential harm.

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