Nursing Elites

1. A 34-week primigravida woman with preeclampsia is receiving Lactated Ringer’s 500ml with magnesium sulfate 20 grams at the rate of 3g/hr. How many ml/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 75ml/hr
• B. 100ml/hr
• C. 50ml/hr
• D. 25ml/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total quantity to be infused (500ml) by the total time (1 hour) which equals 500ml/hr. Since the magnesium sulfate is being given at 3g/hr, and 1g of magnesium sulfate is in 5ml of solution, the rate will be 3g/hr x 5ml/g = 15ml/hr. Therefore, the total infusion rate should be 500ml/hr + 15ml/hr = 515ml/hr. Hence, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75ml/hr (515ml/hr total - 500ml/hr Lactated Ringer's rate). This choice is correct because it accounts for both the Lactated Ringer's and magnesium sulfate rates. Choice B, 100ml/hr, is incorrect as it does not consider the additional magnesium sulfate infusion rate. Choice C, 50ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the magnesium sulfate infusion. Choice D, 25ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too low and does not consider the magnesium sulfate being infused concurrently.

2. The nurse is conducting postpartum teaching with a mother who is breastfeeding her infant. When discussing birth control which method should the nurse recommend to this client as best for her to use in preventing unwanted pregnancy?

• A. Breastfeed exclusively at least every 3 to 4 hours.
• B. Condoms and contraceptive foam or gel.
• C. Rhythm method (natural family planning).
• D. Combined estrogen-progesterone oral contraceptives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Condoms and contraceptive foam or gel are safe options for breastfeeding mothers and do not affect milk supply.

3. An expectant father tells the LPN/LVN he fears that his wife 'is losing her mind.' He states she is constantly rubbing her abdomen and talking to the baby, and that she actually reprimands the baby when it moves too much. What recommendation should the nurse make to this expectant father?

• A. Reassure him that these are normal reactions to pregnancy and suggest that he discuss his concerns with the childbirth education nurse.
• B. Help him understand that his wife is experiencing normal maternal behaviors and bonding with the baby, and reassure him that these actions are positive.
• C. Ask him to observe his wife's behavior carefully for the next few weeks and report any similar behavior to the nurse at the next prenatal visit.
• D. Let him know that these behaviors are part of normal maternal-fetal bonding which occur once the mother feels fetal movement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The father's concerns about his wife's behaviors can be addressed by explaining that behaviors like talking to the baby and responding to fetal movements are part of normal maternal-fetal bonding. These actions indicate that the mother is connecting with the baby and are positive signs of a healthy pregnancy. The nurse should reassure the father that these behaviors are common and beneficial for the mother-baby relationship during pregnancy.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the LPN/LVN to assess the client for which condition?

• A. Gestational diabetes.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Urinary tract infection.
• D. Swelling in lower extremities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes. Terbutaline (Brethine) is known to cause hyperglycemia, so it is crucial to assess for gestational diabetes before administering it. Assessing for elevated blood pressure (choice B), urinary tract infection (choice C), or swelling in lower extremities (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of terbutaline in causing hyperglycemia.

5. A multiparous client with active herpes lesions is admitted to the unit with spontaneous rupture of membranes. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain blood culture.
• B. Administer penicillin.
• C. Cover lesion with a dressing.
• D. Prepare her for cesarean section.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Active herpes lesions at the time of delivery increase the risk of neonatal transmission. The most appropriate action in this scenario is to prepare the client for a cesarean section. A cesarean section is often recommended to reduce the risk of neonatal transmission of herpes simplex virus during delivery, especially when active lesions are present. This intervention helps minimize direct contact between the newborn and the infected genital tract secretions, thereby decreasing the risk of transmission.

Similar Questions