Nursing Elites

1. A 17-year-old unmarried, pregnant client with drug addiction is a high school dropout, homeless, and has a history of past abuse arrives at the clinic for her first prenatal visit. Which findings should the nurse document as health risk factors for the client? (Select all that apply)

• A. age
• B. school dropout
• C. drug addiction
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All these factors - age, school dropout, drug addiction - are significant health risk factors for the client. Being young, a high school dropout, and struggling with drug addiction can lead to various complications during pregnancy, such as poor prenatal outcomes and social challenges. These factors can impact the client's overall health and well-being, highlighting the importance of addressing them during prenatal care.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.5 g/dL.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL.
• D. Serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the serum ammonia level of 180 mcg/dL. An elevated serum ammonia level indicates hepatic dysfunction and can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Options A, B, and C are within normal ranges or slightly abnormal values for clients with cirrhosis and do not pose an immediate threat. Serum albumin levels may indicate malnutrition, prothrombin time may reflect liver synthetic function, and hemoglobin levels can be affected by various factors but do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

3. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL is an indicator of effective erythropoietin therapy as it shows an increase in red blood cell production. Reticulocyte count (choice B) reflects the bone marrow's response to anemia but does not directly confirm the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Blood pressure (choice C) and serum ferritin level (choice D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease.

4. During a home health visit, the nurse notices that an older male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is wearing loose cloth slippers. The client reports that he cannot comfortably wear other shoes because his toenails get in the way. The nurse inspects the client's feet and finds long thick nails that curl down under some of the toes. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. demonstrate proper foot care to the client and family
• B. have a home health aide assist the client with hygiene weekly
• C. schedule an appointment for the client with a podiatrist
• D. trim the client's toenails gradually over several visits

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Scheduling an appointment with a podiatrist is the most appropriate action in this scenario. For a client with long thick nails that curl under the toes, professional foot care by a podiatrist is necessary to prevent complications, especially in a client with diabetes mellitus. Demonstrating proper foot care (choice A) may not address the immediate need for nail trimming. Having a home health aide assist with hygiene weekly (choice B) may not be sufficient for managing the client's toenail issue effectively. Trimming the client's toenails gradually over several visits (choice D) should be performed by a professional like a podiatrist to avoid potential complications.

5. A client with hypertension is being seen in a community clinic. The nurse notes that the client has not been taking their prescribed medication regularly. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

• A. Educate the client on the importance of medication adherence
• B. Explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client
• C. Refer the client to a hypertension specialist
• D. Adjust the client's medication regimen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial intervention when a client is not adhering to prescribed medication is to explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client. Understanding the client's perspective can help identify barriers to adherence, such as side effects, cost, forgetfulness, or misunderstanding of the treatment. By addressing these reasons, the nurse can work collaboratively with the client to develop strategies to improve medication compliance. Educating the client on the importance of adherence (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after exploring the reasons for non-adherence. Referring the client to a hypertension specialist (Choice C) or adjusting the medication regimen (Choice D) should be considered after addressing the underlying reasons for non-adherence.

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