HESI RN
Pediatric HESI
1. The nurse is providing care for a 12-year-old child who was recently diagnosed with scoliosis. The child’s parent asks about treatment options. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. Scoliosis can be corrected with exercises and physical therapy.
- B. Bracing is often recommended to prevent further curvature of the spine.
- C. Surgery is usually necessary for all cases of scoliosis.
- D. There is no effective treatment for scoliosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bracing is commonly used in moderate cases of scoliosis to prevent progression of the spinal curvature. Choice A is incorrect because exercises and physical therapy can help manage scoliosis but may not correct it. Choice C is incorrect as surgery is usually reserved for severe cases of scoliosis that do not respond to other treatments. Choice D is incorrect because there are effective treatments available for scoliosis, such as bracing, and surgery when necessary.
2. When a 3-year-old boy asks a nurse why his baby sister is eating his mommy’s breast, how should the nurse respond? (Select the response that does not apply.)
- A. Remind him that his mother breastfed him too
- B. Clarify that breastfeeding is the mother’s choice
- C. Reassure the older brother that it does not hurt his mother
- D. Explain that newborns get milk from their mothers in this way
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should avoid reminding the older sibling about his own breastfeeding experience as it does not directly address the question posed by the boy. Providing simple explanations about breastfeeding and newborn feeding patterns helps the older sibling understand the natural process without bringing up personal experiences. Choice B is correct because clarifying that breastfeeding is the mother's choice helps the older sibling understand the concept of personal decisions. Choice C is appropriate as reassuring the older brother that it does not hurt his mother addresses a common concern children may have. Choice D is also suitable as it explains in simple terms how newborns receive milk from their mothers.
3. A 7-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with nephrotic syndrome. The nurse notes that the child has gained 3 pounds in the past 24 hours. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
- B. Restrict the child’s fluid intake
- C. Notify the healthcare provider
- D. Measure the child’s abdominal girth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome experiencing sudden weight gain, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. This weight gain could indicate worsening edema or fluid retention, necessitating immediate medical evaluation and intervention. The healthcare provider can conduct a comprehensive assessment, order necessary tests, and adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Administering a diuretic, restricting fluid intake, or measuring abdominal girth should not be initiated without healthcare provider consultation to ensure appropriate management of the child's condition.
4. A child with sickle cell anemia is being treated for a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement?
- A. Apply cold packs to painful areas.
- B. Encourage increased fluid intake.
- C. Administer high doses of vitamin C.
- D. Provide low-calorie meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is crucial in managing vaso-occlusive crises in patients with sickle cell anemia. Dehydration can worsen these crises, so adequate hydration is essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes. Applying cold packs to painful areas may exacerbate vaso-occlusive crises by causing vasoconstriction. Administering high doses of vitamin C is not directly indicated for vaso-occlusive crises in sickle cell anemia. Providing low-calorie meals is not the priority during a vaso-occlusive crisis; maintaining adequate nutrition is important, but hydration takes precedence in this situation.
5. A 13-year-old client with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL. The client reports feeling thirsty and having frequent urination. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed
- B. Encourage the client to drink water
- C. Check the client’s urine for ketones
- D. Reinforce the importance of diet and exercise
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with type 1 diabetes presenting with hyperglycemia (blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL) and symptoms of thirst and frequent urination, the priority action for the nurse is to administer insulin as prescribed. Insulin helps lower the blood glucose level and prevents complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. While encouraging hydration is essential, administering insulin is crucial to address the high blood glucose levels. Checking urine for ketones is important in diabetic management but is secondary to administering insulin in this scenario. Reinforcing diet and exercise importance is vital for diabetes management but not the priority in acute hyperglycemia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access