a nurse is assisting with the development of strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses for a community group the nurse should plan to include which of
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HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

1. A nurse is assisting with the development of strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses for a community group. The nurse should plan to include which of the following recommendations? (Select one that doesn't apply).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Discarding leftovers after 48 hours is not an effective recommendation to prevent foodborne illnesses. Leftovers should actually be discarded within 2 hours if they have been at room temperature. Choices A, B, and D are all effective strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses: avoiding unpasteurized dairy products reduces the risk of harmful bacteria, keeping cold food temperatures below 4.4°C (40°F) inhibits bacterial growth, and washing raw vegetables thoroughly removes contaminants.

2. Which of these findings would the nurse most closely associate with anemia in a 10-month-old infant?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips is a classic sign of anemia in infants, indicating a lack of sufficient red blood cells. This finding is due to decreased hemoglobin levels, which causes reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choices A, C, and D are less specific to anemia in infants. While a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL may be within the normal range for a 10-month-old infant, the presence of pale mucosa is a more indicative sign of anemia.

3. A client with hypertension taking a potassium-wasting diuretic is being educated about nutrition by a nurse. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Consume organs and bananas.' When a client is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic, they are at risk of potassium loss. Consuming foods high in potassium, such as organs and bananas, can help counteract this loss. Choice A is incorrect because tuna and salmon are not particularly high in potassium. Choice B is incorrect because dried fruits are good sources of potassium. Choice C is incorrect as cow's milk is also a good source of potassium, which could be beneficial for a client taking a potassium-wasting diuretic.

4. A client is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type of isolation is most appropriate for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Contact.' Contact precautions are necessary for clients with MRSA pneumonia to prevent the spread of the resistant bacteria. MRSA is primarily spread by direct contact, so using contact precautions, such as wearing gloves and gowns, is essential. Choice A, 'Reverse,' is not a type of isolation precaution. Choice B, 'Airborne,' is not the appropriate isolation for MRSA pneumonia, as MRSA is not transmitted through the airborne route. Choice C, 'Standard precautions,' are important for all clients, but for MRSA pneumonia specifically, contact precautions are more targeted and necessary.

5. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.

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