HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. A 14-year-old girl with asthma complains of feeling nervous and jittery after a respiratory therapy bronchodilator treatment. What explanation is best for the nurse to provide to this adolescent?
- A. Nervousness should disappear when hypoxia is relieved after several bronchodilator treatments
- B. Tremors result from the rapid dilation of the bronchioles and an increased heart rate
- C. A fast heart rate and jitteriness are side effects of the bronchodilator treatment containing albuterol
- D. Excessive coughing, which causes tachypnea and anxiety, result from the use of bronchodilators
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a fast heart rate and jitteriness are common side effects of bronchodilators like albuterol. Choice A is incorrect as nervousness is more likely a side effect of the medication than solely related to hypoxia. Choice B is incorrect as it provides a partial explanation focusing only on tremors and heart rate, not mentioning jitteriness. Choice D is incorrect because excessive coughing and tachypnea are not typically associated with bronchodilator use; instead, they may indicate inadequate relief or other issues.
2. A 59-year-old male client is brought to the emergency room where he is assessed to have a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3. Based on this assessment, how should the nurse characterize the client's condition?
- A. The client is experiencing increased intracranial pressure
- B. He has a good prognosis for recovery
- C. This client is conscious, but is not oriented to time and place
- D. He is in a coma, and has a very poor prognosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale of 3 indicates severe neurological impairment, suggesting a deep coma or even impending death. This client's condition is critical, and he has a very poor prognosis. Choice A is incorrect because a GCS of 3 does not directly indicate increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as a GCS of 3 signifies a grave neurological status. Choice C is incorrect as a GCS of 3 represents a state of unconsciousness rather than being conscious but disoriented.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving treatment for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?
- A. Dry mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Decreased skin turgor
- D. Elevated heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign indicating that the client is responding to the treatment for dehydration. It suggests that the client's kidneys are functioning better, helping to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration, not improvement. Decreased skin turgor (Choice C) and elevated heart rate (Choice D) are also symptoms of dehydration and do not indicate a positive response to treatment.
4. The nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. The nurse notes that there is continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of the chest tube drainage system. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Check for kinks in the tubing
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Replace the chest tube drainage system
- D. Reinforce the chest tube dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when observing continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of the chest tube drainage system is to notify the healthcare provider. Continuous bubbling indicates a possible air leak, and the healthcare provider needs to be informed to assess the situation and take appropriate actions. Checking for kinks in the tubing (Choice A) may be done initially but is not the priority when continuous bubbling is present. Replacing the chest tube drainage system (Choice C) and reinforcing the chest tube dressing (Choice D) are not immediate actions needed in response to continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
5. The nurse is planning care for a 2-year-old child who is scheduled for an infusion of immune globulin for treatment of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this child?
- A. Risk for infection
- B. Risk for injury
- C. Altered oral mucous membranes
- D. Risk for fluid volume deficit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When caring for a child with ITP scheduled for immune globulin infusion, the highest priority is to prevent infection. This is crucial due to the risk of bleeding associated with ITP and the immunosuppression that can be caused by the condition and its treatment. The other options, such as 'Risk for injury,' 'Altered oral mucous membranes,' and 'Risk for fluid volume deficit,' are not as high a priority as preventing infection in this particular situation.
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