HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. A 14-year-old girl with asthma complains of feeling nervous and jittery after a respiratory therapy bronchodilator treatment. What explanation is best for the nurse to provide to this adolescent?
- A. Nervousness should disappear when hypoxia is relieved after several bronchodilator treatments
- B. Tremors result from the rapid dilation of the bronchioles and an increased heart rate
- C. A fast heart rate and jitteriness are side effects of the bronchodilator treatment containing albuterol
- D. Excessive coughing, which causes tachypnea and anxiety, result from the use of bronchodilators
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a fast heart rate and jitteriness are common side effects of bronchodilators like albuterol. Choice A is incorrect as nervousness is more likely a side effect of the medication than solely related to hypoxia. Choice B is incorrect as it provides a partial explanation focusing only on tremors and heart rate, not mentioning jitteriness. Choice D is incorrect because excessive coughing and tachypnea are not typically associated with bronchodilator use; instead, they may indicate inadequate relief or other issues.
2. Several clients on a telemetry unit are scheduled for discharge in the morning, but a telemetry-monitored bed is needed immediately. The charge nurse should make arrangements to transfer which client to another medical unit?
- A. Learning to self-administer insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus
- B. Ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago
- C. Wearing a sling immobilizer following permanent pacemaker insertion earlier that day
- D. Experiencing syncopal episodes resulting from the dehydration caused by severe diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because transferring a stable client who is learning self-care, such as self-administering insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, provides the needed telemetry-monitored bed without compromising the client's care. Choice B should not be transferred as the client is ambulatory following surgery and does not require telemetry monitoring. Choice C should not be transferred as the client is wearing a sling immobilizer following pacemaker insertion, which requires close monitoring. Choice D should not be transferred as the client is experiencing syncopal episodes due to severe dehydration, necessitating telemetry monitoring for immediate intervention.
3. The nurse is caring for a laboring 22-year-old primigravida following administration of regional anesthesia. In planning care for this client, what nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach
- B. Teaching the client how to push effectively to decrease the length of the second stage of labor
- C. Timing and recording uterine contractions
- D. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention for a laboring client following administration of regional anesthesia is to ensure safety by raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach. This is crucial to prevent falls and to ensure that the client can call for assistance if needed. Teaching the client how to push effectively (Choice B) is important but not the highest priority at this moment. Timing and recording uterine contractions (Choice C) are essential but not as immediate as ensuring safety post-anesthesia. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia (Choice D) is important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence in this situation.
4. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
- B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
- C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
- D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.
5. The nurse is performing a physical assessment of a client with a history of smoking and notes a barrel chest. Which action is most important for the nurse to take next?
- A. Assess the client's oxygen saturation level
- B. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing techniques
- C. Determine the client's history of lung disease
- D. Obtain an arterial blood gas sample
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation level is crucial when a nurse identifies a barrel chest. A barrel chest is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which can lead to impaired gas exchange and decreased oxygen saturation. Monitoring the oxygen saturation level will provide immediate information on the client's respiratory status. Teaching pursed-lip breathing techniques, determining lung disease history, and obtaining arterial blood gas samples are important interventions but assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence in this scenario due to its direct impact on the client's respiratory function.
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