Nursing Elites

1. A 10-year-old girl who has had type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) for the past two years tells the nurse that she would like to use a pump instead of insulin injections to manage her diabetes. Which assessment of the girl is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Understanding of the quality control process used to troubleshoot the pump
• B. Interpretation of fingerstick glucose levels that influence diet selections
• C. Knowledge of her glycosylated hemoglobin A1c levels for the past year
• D. Ability to perform the pump for basal insulin with mealtime boluses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient transitioning to an insulin pump, understanding the quality control process to troubleshoot the pump is crucial for ensuring proper and safe management of diabetes. This knowledge enables the individual to identify and address any issues that may arise with the pump, helping maintain optimal glycemic control and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D, although important in diabetes management, are not as critical as ensuring the correct understanding of troubleshooting the pump, which directly impacts the girl's ability to effectively use the pump for insulin delivery.

2. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left to right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

3. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for a 4-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome?

• A. Impaired urinary elimination.
• B. Risk for infection.
• C. Fluid volume excess.
• D. Risk for impaired skin integrity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome, fluid volume excess is a priority nursing diagnosis due to the risk of edema and related complications. This patient may experience significant fluid retention, leading to edema, hypertension, and potential respiratory distress. Monitoring and managing fluid volume excess are crucial in preventing further complications and supporting the child's health during nephrotic syndrome. The other options are not the priority in this case. Impaired urinary elimination is not typically a primary concern in nephrotic syndrome. While infection is a risk due to compromised immunity, fluid volume excess poses a more immediate threat to the child's health. Risk for impaired skin integrity may be a concern secondary to edema, but addressing fluid volume excess takes precedence.

4. A 5-year-old child with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the child’s white blood cell count is low. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Administer antibiotics as prescribed
• B. Place the child in protective isolation
• C. Encourage the child to eat a balanced diet
• D. Teach the parents about infection prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a 5-year-old child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy and having a low white blood cell count is to place the child in protective isolation. This intervention helps reduce the risk of infection, which is crucial in this immunocompromised state. Protective isolation aims to limit the child's exposure to pathogens and promote their safety during a period of increased vulnerability to infections.

5. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide to parents?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
• B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
• C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
• D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects males. It is crucial for the nurse to explain to the parents that this condition follows an inheritance pattern where the gene mutation responsible for the disorder is located on the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome, so if they inherit the mutated gene, they will develop the disease. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes, providing a backup copy that can compensate for the mutation. Understanding this inheritance pattern is essential for family planning decisions, as the risk of passing on the disorder to future children can be explained based on this genetic inheritance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the genetic basis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy or its inheritance pattern, which is crucial information for the parents in this scenario.

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