HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. A child who is admitted to the hospital with anemia is anxious, fearful, and hyperventilating. The nurse anticipates the child developing which acid-base imbalance?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Respiratory acidosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the child is hyperventilating, which leads to excessive loss of carbon dioxide. This loss of carbon dioxide causes respiratory alkalosis due to a decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood. Therefore, the correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a decrease in pH and bicarbonate levels due to conditions like kidney disease. Respiratory acidosis is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, leading to an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide. Metabolic alkalosis results from a loss of acid or an increase in bicarbonate levels.
2. The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old adolescent who is admitted with a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. The adolescent’s vital signs are stable, but the nurse notes that the client has dry skin and appears thin. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Initiate a structured eating plan for the client
- B. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the client
- C. Monitor the client’s electrolyte levels
- D. Provide education on healthy eating habits
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients with bulimia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances are common due to purging behaviors and can lead to severe complications. Monitoring electrolyte levels is essential to detect and manage any imbalances promptly, as they can be life-threatening.
3. A 4-year-old child with a history of asthma is brought to the clinic with a complaint of cough and wheezing. The nurse notes that the child has been using a rescue inhaler more frequently over the past week. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Review the child’s asthma action plan
- B. Administer a dose of the rescue inhaler
- C. Instruct the parents to increase the dose of the controller medication
- D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in one week
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action for the nurse is to review the child's asthma action plan. By doing so, the nurse can assess the current asthma management, ensure that the child is using the rescue inhaler correctly, and make any necessary adjustments to the treatment plan. Reviewing the asthma action plan helps in identifying triggers, proper use of medications, and when to seek medical help. Administering a dose of the rescue inhaler without assessing the current management plan may not address the underlying issue. Instructing the parents to increase the dose of the controller medication without proper evaluation can lead to inappropriate medication adjustments. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in one week is not the immediate action needed to address the child's current symptoms.
4. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?
- A. Apply ice to the affected joint
- B. Administer pain medication
- C. Elevate the affected limb
- D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.
5. A 5-year-old child with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the child’s white blood cell count is low. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
- A. Administer antibiotics as prescribed
- B. Place the child in protective isolation
- C. Encourage the child to eat a balanced diet
- D. Teach the parents about infection prevention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority intervention for a 5-year-old child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy and having a low white blood cell count is to place the child in protective isolation. This intervention helps reduce the risk of infection, which is crucial in this immunocompromised state. Protective isolation aims to limit the child's exposure to pathogens and promote their safety during a period of increased vulnerability to infections.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access