Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
• B. Provide a detailed schedule of daily activities.
• C. Discuss the importance of medication adherence.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.

2. What should the nurse initially assess when a high school girl reveals engaging in self-induced vomiting as a weight-control measure?

• A. National percentile of weight and height.
• B. Frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors.
• C. Perceptions of family and social relationships.
• D. School grades and extracurricular activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors. This assessment is crucial in understanding the severity of the eating disorder and developing an appropriate treatment plan. Options A, C, and D are not the initial priority when dealing with a student engaging in harmful behaviors related to eating disorders. While weight and height, family relationships, and academic performance are important aspects to consider, the immediate focus should be on evaluating the behaviors directly linked to the reported issue.

3. A client is being treated for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse educate the client about?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Insomnia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Insomnia. Insomnia is a common side effect of SSRIs, including those used to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Educating the client about potential side effects like insomnia is crucial for managing expectations and promoting treatment adherence. Weight loss (choice A) is less common with SSRIs and might not be a primary concern for a client with GAD. Increased appetite (choice B) is also less likely with SSRIs. Dry mouth (choice D) is a side effect more commonly associated with other classes of medications, such as anticholinergics, rather than SSRIs.

4. A middle-aged female client with no previous psychiatric history is seen in the mental health clinic because her family describes her as having paranoid thoughts. On assessment, she tells the nurse, “I want to find out why these people are stalking me.” Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. It sounds like this experience is frightening for you.
• B. What makes you think people are stalking you?
• C. I know you are frightened, but no one is stalking you.
• D. Do you think someone is trying to harm you?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse to provide is option A: 'It sounds like this experience is frightening for you.' This response acknowledges the client's feelings and emotions without directly challenging the delusion of being stalked. Option B is incorrect as it directly questions the client's belief, which can lead to increased defensiveness. Option C is incorrect as it denies the client's belief without addressing the underlying fear and can cause the client to feel misunderstood. Option D is incorrect as it directly asks about harm, which may not be the primary concern of the client at this moment.

5. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

Similar Questions