Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the mental health unit and reports taking extra antianxiety medication because, “I’m so stressed out. I just wanted to go sleep.” The nurse should plan one-on-one observation of the client based on which statement?

• A. What should I do? Nothing seems to help.
• B. I have been so tired lately and needed to sleep.
• C. I really think that I don’t need to be here.
• D. I don’t want to talk. Nothing matters anymore.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's statement of not wanting to talk and feeling that nothing matters anymore is indicative of severe depression or a risk for self-harm. This warrants immediate attention and one-on-one observation to ensure the client's safety. Choices A, B, and C do not express the same level of concerning behavior and do not imply an immediate risk to the client's well-being.

2. A client in the emergency department presents with confusion, disorientation, and agitation after drinking alcohol. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate to assess for potential complications?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Electrolyte panel
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Urinalysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is an electrolyte panel. When a client presents with confusion, disorientation, and agitation after drinking alcohol, it indicates potential complications such as electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial in these cases to detect and address abnormalities that may result from alcohol intake. While a complete blood count (choice A) may provide some valuable information, it is not the primary test to assess for alcohol-related complications presenting with these symptoms. Liver function tests (choice C) are more specific for assessing liver damage due to chronic alcohol use rather than immediate complications. Urinalysis (choice D) may help detect some issues but is not the most appropriate initial test to assess for potential complications in this scenario.

3. Narcan was administered to an adult client following a suicide attempt with an overdose of hydrocodone bitartrate (Vicodin). Within 15 minutes, the client is alert and oriented. In planning nursing care, which intervention has the highest priority at this time?

• A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• B. Obtain the client’s serum Vicodin level.
• C. Observe the client for further narcotic effects.
• D. Determine the client’s reason for attempting suicide.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the client for further narcotic effects is the priority at this time. It is crucial to monitor the client closely to prevent a relapse of symptoms or potential complications from the overdose. Encouraging fluid intake is important for overall health but not the priority after an overdose. Obtaining serum Vicodin levels may be needed later but does not address the immediate need to monitor for ongoing effects. Determining the reason for the suicide attempt is vital for psychological assessment but should come after ensuring the client's physical stability.

4. When changing the dressing for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen, which approach should the RN use?

• A. Provide detailed and thorough explanations while cleansing the wound.
• B. Perform the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner.
• C. Ask why the client cut their own abdomen in a non-threatening manner.
• D. Request assistance from another staff member for the dressing change.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct approach for the RN when changing the dressing for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen is to perform the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner. This approach helps maintain therapeutic rapport and respect for the client's situation. Choice A is incorrect because providing detailed and thorough explanations may not be as important as maintaining a non-judgmental attitude. Choice C is incorrect because asking why the client cut their own abdomen may come across as accusatory or threatening, which can be counterproductive in building trust. Choice D is incorrect because the RN should be equipped to handle the dressing change independently while ensuring a supportive and non-judgmental environment for the client.

5. The RN is preparing medications for a client with bipolar disorder and notices that the client discontinued antipsychotic medication for several days. Which medication should also be discontinued?

• A. Lithium (Lithotabs).
• B. Benztropine (Cogentin).
• C. Alprazolam (Xanax).
• D. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Benztropine (Cogentin). Benztropine is commonly prescribed to manage side effects of antipsychotic medications. Therefore, if the antipsychotic medication is discontinued, there would be no need for Benztropine. Lithium is a mood stabilizer used in bipolar disorder, not directly related to antipsychotic use. Alprazolam is an anxiolytic, and Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia) is a laxative, neither of which is typically associated with antipsychotic medication use.

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