Nursing Elites

1. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

2. A postoperative client has three different PRN analgesics prescribed for varying levels of pain. The nurse inadvertently administers a dose that is not within the prescribed parameters. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess for side effects of the medication.
• B. Document the client’s responses.
• C. Complete a medication error report.
• D. Determine if the pain was relieved.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario where a nurse administers a medication outside the prescribed parameters, the immediate action should be to assess the client for any potential side effects of the medication. This is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. By promptly assessing for side effects, the nurse can address any adverse reactions promptly and provide necessary interventions. Once the client's safety is ensured, documenting the client's responses, completing a medication error report, and assessing pain relief can follow as part of the broader response to the medication error. Choice B is not the first priority because the immediate concern is the potential harm from the incorrect dose. Choice C is also important but comes after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D focuses on the outcome rather than the immediate need to address any side effects of the medication.

3. When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Loosen the right wrist restraint.
• B. Apply a pulse oximeter to the right hand.
• C. Compare hand color bilaterally.
• D. Palpate the right radial pulse.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action is to restore circulation by loosening the restraint (A) because blue fingers (cyanosis) indicate decreased circulation. Comparing hand color bilaterally (C) and palpating the right radial pulse (D) are important assessments to gather more information, but they do not have the priority of addressing the decreased circulation by loosening the restraint. Applying a pulse oximeter (B) is not indicated in this scenario as it measures the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen, which is not relevant when cyanosis is related to mechanical compression from the restraints.

4. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a 65-year-old client who attends an adult daycare program, is wheelchair-mobile, and has redness in the sacral area?

• A. Take a vitamin supplement tablet once a day.
• B. Change positions in the chair at least every hour.
• C. Increase daily intake of water or other oral fluids.
• D. Purchase a newer model wheelchair.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client with redness in the sacral area, the most critical instruction is to change positions in the chair at least every hour. This is crucial to prevent pressure ulcers, which can develop due to prolonged pressure on the skin and underlying tissues. Regular position changes help relieve pressure on vulnerable areas, promoting circulation and reducing the risk of skin breakdown and pressure ulcer formation.

5. Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for an adult client with hypernatremia?

• A. Monitor daily urine output volume
• B. Drink plenty of water whenever thirsty
• C. Use salt tablets for sodium content
• D. Review food labels for sodium content

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hypernatremia, there is an excess of sodium in the blood. Reviewing food labels for sodium content is crucial as it helps the client identify and avoid high-sodium foods, which can contribute to elevated sodium levels. Monitoring urine output volume may be important for other conditions but is not directly related to managing hypernatremia. Drinking water whenever thirsty is generally good advice for staying hydrated but does not specifically address the issue of high sodium levels. Using salt tablets would worsen hypernatremia by further increasing sodium intake.

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