Nursing Elites

1. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

2. A client has a nursing diagnosis of 'Spiritual distress related to a loss of hope, secondary to impending death.' What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client?

• A. Help the client accept the final stage of life.
• B. Assist and support the client in establishing short-term goals.
• C. Encourage the client to make future plans, even if they are unrealistic.
• D. Instruct the client's family to focus on positive aspects of the client's life.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is experiencing spiritual distress due to a loss of hope related to impending death, it is crucial for the nurse to assist and support the client in establishing short-term goals. This approach helps the client maintain hope and a sense of purpose, as achieving immediate goals can provide a sense of accomplishment and meaning. While acceptance of the final stage of life is important, helping the client set short-term goals is a more immediate and effective intervention in addressing spiritual distress. Encouraging the client to make future plans, especially if they are unrealistic, may not be beneficial as it could lead to further distress if those plans are unattainable. Instructing the client's family to focus on positive aspects of the client's life, though supportive, does not directly address the client's spiritual distress and loss of hope.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
• B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
• C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

4. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is admitted with chest pain. Which laboratory test should the nurse expect to be ordered to determine if the client is experiencing another MI?

• A. Troponin
• B. Myoglobin
• C. CK-MB
• D. C-reactive protein

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Troponin is the most specific and sensitive laboratory test for detecting myocardial infarction (MI). It is released when there is damage to the heart muscle, making it a valuable marker for diagnosing another MI. Myoglobin and CK-MB can also be elevated in MI, but troponin is preferred due to its higher specificity. C-reactive protein is a marker of inflammation and not specific to MI.

5. During evacuation of a group of clients from a medical unit because of a fire, the nurse observes an ambulatory client walking alone toward the stairway at the end of the hall. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Assign an unlicensed assistive personnel to transport the client via a wheelchair.
• B. Remind the client to walk carefully down the stairs until reaching a lower floor.
• C. Ask the client to help by assisting a wheelchair-bound client to a nearby elevator.
• D. Open the closest fire doors to facilitate the evacuation of ambulatory clients.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a fire evacuation, it is crucial for ambulatory clients to be reminded to walk carefully down the stairs. This helps ensure the safety of the client by preventing falls or injuries during the evacuation process. Directing the client to proceed cautiously down the stairs until reaching a lower floor provides necessary guidance to promote a safe evacuation process. Choice A is incorrect because assigning unlicensed assistive personnel to transport the client via a wheelchair may delay the evacuation process and increase the risk of injury. Choice C is incorrect as it distracts the ambulatory client from evacuating safely by involving them in assisting another client. Choice D is incorrect as opening fire doors may not be the most appropriate action at that moment; prioritizing safe evacuation procedures for ambulatory clients is essential.

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