the nurse is assessing a clients cranial nerve function which assessment finding indicates that cranial nerve ii is intact
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Quizlet

1. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

2. During a urethral catheterization on a female, where would the healthcare provider observe the urethral meatus after separating the labia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct location of the urethral meatus in females is between the clitoris and the vaginal orifice. When performing a urethral catheterization, it is crucial to identify this anatomical landmark for correct insertion of the catheter. Choice A is incorrect as the urethral meatus is not located between the vaginal orifice and the anus. Choice C is incorrect as the urethral meatus is not located just above the clitoris. Choice D is incorrect as the urethral meatus is not within the vaginal canal.

3. Following a craniotomy, why did the nurse position the client in low Fowler's position?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Positioning the client in low Fowler's position after a craniotomy is essential to promote drainage from the operation site. This position helps prevent fluid accumulation, facilitates the removal of excess fluid or blood, and aids in the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because comfort, while important, is not the primary reason for this specific positioning. Choice C is incorrect as thoracic expansion is not the main concern following a craniotomy. Choice D is incorrect as circulatory overload is not typically addressed by positioning in low Fowler's position post-craniotomy.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients prior to surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur during surgery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications such as excessive bleeding and difficulty in achieving hemostasis. This poses a significant threat during a surgical procedure where controlling bleeding is crucial for a successful outcome. The other options (A, C, D) are not as critical as anticoagulants in terms of posing a threat for complications during surgery. Birth control pills, recently completing antibiotic therapy, and using laxatives do not directly impact bleeding risks during surgery compared to anticoagulants.

5. The client has received a new diagnosis of heart failure, and the nurse is providing dietary management education. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avoiding foods high in sodium (choice B) is essential for clients with heart failure to prevent fluid retention and decrease the strain on the heart. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, exacerbating heart failure symptoms. Increasing potassium intake (choice A) can be harmful in heart failure if not monitored closely as it can affect heart rhythm. Limiting fluid intake (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but the specific amount should be individualized based on the client's condition. Increasing vitamin K intake (choice D) is not a primary concern in heart failure management and is more relevant for clients on anticoagulants to manage blood clotting.

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