Nursing Elites

1. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

2. Upon admission, a female client with breast cancer, liver, and spine metastases presents with constant, severe pain despite the continuous use of oxycodone (Percodan) and amitriptyline (Elavil) at home for pain management. What information is most crucial for the nurse to gather during the admission assessment?

• A. Sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of the pain.
• B. Identification of trigger points through palpation and manual pressure on painful areas.
• C. Current schedule and total dosages of medications used for breakthrough pain.
• D. Assessment of sympathetic responses indicative of acute pain onset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical information for the nurse to obtain during the admission assessment of a client with severe pain due to breast cancer metastasis to the liver and spine is the sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of the pain. Understanding these details is essential to tailor appropriate pain management therapy effectively. By assessing the sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of pain, the nurse can better determine the underlying cause and choose the most suitable interventions to address the client's pain and improve their quality of life. Trigger points, medication dosages, and sympathetic responses are also important aspects of pain assessment but understanding the sensory aspects of pain is fundamental for providing optimal care in this scenario.

3. Mr. Landon is scheduled to undergo a tracheostomy. Which nursing action is essential during tracheal suctioning?

• A. Using a water-soluble lubricant.
• B. Administering 100% oxygen before and after suctioning.
• C. Ensuring that the suction catheter is open during insertion.
• D. Assisting the client to assume a semi-Fowler's position during suctioning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering 100% oxygen before and after suctioning is crucial to prevent hypoxia, which can occur during tracheal suctioning. Hypoxia can lead to serious complications, making the provision of oxygen essential in maintaining adequate oxygenation levels for the patient undergoing tracheal suctioning. Choice A is incorrect because using a water-soluble lubricant is not directly related to the essential nursing action during tracheal suctioning. Choice C is incorrect as ensuring that the suction catheter is open during insertion is a basic requirement and not the essential action for oxygenation. Choice D is incorrect because assisting the client to assume a semi-Fowler's position is beneficial for comfort and airway alignment but is not as crucial as administering oxygen to prevent hypoxia.

4. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

5. In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?

• A. Continue gabapentin.
• B. Discontinue ibuprofen.
• C. Add aspirin to the protocol.
• D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.

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