Nursing Elites

1. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who is experiencing fluid volume deficit (dehydration). Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy?

• A. Monitor daily weights
• B. Assess skin turgor
• C. Evaluate blood pressure trends
• D. Check urine specific gravity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weights is an accurate method to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy because changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance. Fluid volume deficit can be objectively evaluated by monitoring daily weights as it provides a more precise measurement of fluid status over time. Assessing skin turgor (choice B) is subjective and may not provide as accurate or measurable data as monitoring daily weights. Evaluating blood pressure trends (choice C) can give information about circulatory status but may not directly reflect fluid volume status. Checking urine specific gravity (choice D) can indicate the concentration of urine but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid balance like monitoring daily weights does.

3. After an adult had an indwelling catheter removed, the nurse catheterizes them as ordered and obtains 200 cc of urine. What is the best interpretation of this finding?

• A. Is voiding normally.
• B. Has urinary retention.
• C. Has developed renal failure.
• D. Needs an indwelling catheter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The finding of obtaining 200 cc of urine after catheterization indicates urinary retention, as the bladder did not empty completely after the first void. This situation may require further assessment and intervention to address the issue of incomplete bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because voiding normally would indicate a larger amount of urine output. Choice C is incorrect as renal failure would typically present with other signs and symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as the presence of urinary retention does not necessarily mean the need for an indwelling catheter immediately.

4. During a sterile procedure at a client's bedside, a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field. What is the best action for the nurse to implement?

• A. Report the incident to the supervisor for aseptic technique violation.
• B. Allow the completion of the procedure.
• C. Inquire about the contamination of the glove and sterile field.
• D. Identify the breach in surgical asepsis and provide a new set of sterile supplies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario where a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field during a procedure, it is crucial to identify any breach in surgical asepsis. Any potential contamination should be considered compromised, and the nurse must act promptly to maintain sterility by providing a fresh set of sterile supplies for the procedure to continue safely.

5. During evacuation of a group of clients from a medical unit because of a fire, the nurse observes an ambulatory client walking alone toward the stairway at the end of the hall. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Assign an unlicensed assistive personnel to transport the client via a wheelchair.
• B. Remind the client to walk carefully down the stairs until reaching a lower floor.
• C. Ask the client to help by assisting a wheelchair-bound client to a nearby elevator.
• D. Open the closest fire doors to facilitate the evacuation of ambulatory clients.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a fire evacuation, it is crucial for ambulatory clients to be reminded to walk carefully down the stairs. This helps ensure the safety of the client by preventing falls or injuries during the evacuation process. Directing the client to proceed cautiously down the stairs until reaching a lower floor provides necessary guidance to promote a safe evacuation process. Choice A is incorrect because assigning unlicensed assistive personnel to transport the client via a wheelchair may delay the evacuation process and increase the risk of injury. Choice C is incorrect as it distracts the ambulatory client from evacuating safely by involving them in assisting another client. Choice D is incorrect as opening fire doors may not be the most appropriate action at that moment; prioritizing safe evacuation procedures for ambulatory clients is essential.

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