NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients before surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications during surgery?
- A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
- B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
- C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
- D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is taking anticoagulants for the past year. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications. It is crucial for the healthcare provider to be aware of this medication. While clients taking birth control pills (option A) may be more prone to developing blood clots, these issues typically arise after surgery. Clients who recently completed antibiotic therapy (option C) or have taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months (option D) are at lower risk compared to those taking anticoagulants (option B) during surgery.
2. A 5-year-old child has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial development stages, the child is in which stage?
- A. Trust vs. mistrust
- B. Initiative vs. guilt
- C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
- D. Intimacy vs. isolation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Initiative vs. guilt.' According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial development stages, children aged 3-6 years old are in the stage of initiative versus guilt. During this stage, children begin to assert their power and control over the environment. They develop a sense of purpose and direction, but may also experience feelings of guilt if they believe their actions have caused harm or conflict. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Trust vs. mistrust' is the first stage for infants, 'Autonomy vs. shame and doubt' is the second stage for toddlers, and 'Intimacy vs. isolation' is a stage that occurs later in adulthood.
3. By rolling contaminated gloves inside-out, the nurse is affecting which step in the chain of infection?
- A. Mode of transmission
- B. Portal of entry
- C. Reservoir
- D. Portal of exit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When the nurse rolls contaminated gloves inside-out, they are manipulating the mode of transmission in the chain of infection. The gloves, which are contaminated, act as a vehicle for transferring pathogens from the reservoir's portal of exit to a potential portal of entry. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the action of rolling contaminated gloves does not directly relate to the portal of entry, reservoir, or portal of exit in the chain of infection.
4. What is the nurse's priority action when a client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells experiences tingling in the fingers and headache?
- A. Call the health care provider (HCP).
- B. Stop the transfusion.
- C. Slow the infusion rate.
- D. Assess the intravenous (IV) site for infiltration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion experiences tingling in the fingers and headache, these symptoms may indicate an adverse reaction to the transfusion. The nurse's priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion and initiate a normal saline infusion at a keep vein open (KVO) rate. This helps maintain the client's vein patency while addressing the adverse reactions. After stopping the transfusion and initiating the saline infusion, the nurse should assess the client, including vital signs evaluation. Subsequently, the healthcare provider should be notified. Calling the healthcare provider is important, but it should be done after the immediate action of stopping the transfusion. Slowing the infusion rate is not appropriate during a suspected transfusion reaction as it can exacerbate the adverse effects. Assessing the IV site for infiltration is a routine nursing intervention and is not the priority when managing a potential adverse reaction to a blood transfusion.
5. A man who is admitted for a suicide attempt after the death of his child says, 'I hear my son telling me to come over to the other side.' Which psychotic symptom is the client experiencing?
- A. Fixed delusion
- B. Magical thinking
- C. Pathological regression
- D. Command hallucination
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is experiencing a command hallucination. Command hallucinations involve auditory messages instructing harm to self or others, and giving an identity to the hallucinated voice increases the risk of compliance. A fixed delusion is a false belief held to be true despite evidence to the contrary. Magical thinking involves believing that thoughts can influence events, commonly seen in young children. Pathological regression refers to reverting to a previous developmental stage, not applicable in this scenario.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access