HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals
1. While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to see the clinic's grief counselor.
- B. Determine if the client has a family history of suicide attempts.
- C. Inquire about whether the life partner had AIDS.
- D. Consult with the healthcare provider about the client's need for antidepressant medications.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client is exhibiting symptoms of normal grief, such as flat affect, withdrawal, and sleep disturbances, following the recent death of his life partner. It is crucial for the nurse to encourage the client to see the clinic's grief counselor. Grief counseling can provide the client with appropriate support and coping strategies during this grieving process, helping him navigate through his loss and emotions effectively.
2. During a urethral catheterization on a female, where would the healthcare provider observe the urethral meatus after separating the labia?
- A. Between the vaginal orifice and the anus.
- B. Between the clitoris and the vaginal orifice.
- C. Just above the clitoris.
- D. Within the vaginal canal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct location of the urethral meatus in females is between the clitoris and the vaginal orifice. When performing a urethral catheterization, it is crucial to identify this anatomical landmark for correct insertion of the catheter. Choice A is incorrect as the urethral meatus is not located between the vaginal orifice and the anus. Choice C is incorrect as the urethral meatus is not located just above the clitoris. Choice D is incorrect as the urethral meatus is not within the vaginal canal.
3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
- B. Increase intake of leafy green vegetables
- C. Consume a consistent amount of foods high in potassium
- D. Limit intake of high-protein foods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct dietary instruction for a client taking warfarin is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Consuming foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can antagonize the effects of warfarin, potentially leading to treatment inefficacy or fluctuations in anticoagulation levels. Therefore, clients on warfarin therapy should be advised to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables (choice B) would introduce more vitamin K, consuming a consistent amount of foods high in potassium (choice C) is not directly related to warfarin therapy, and limiting high-protein foods (choice D) is not a specific concern for clients on warfarin therapy.
4. When a male client mentions his foot is hurting while watching TV with his wife, how should the nurse respond?
- A. Ask him to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
- B. Encourage him to wait until bedtime for the pill to help him sleep.
- C. Attend to an acutely ill client's needs first as the client is laughing.
- D. Instruct him in the use of deep breathing exercises for pain control.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10. This helps the nurse assess the intensity of the pain and determine the appropriate pain medication. Encouraging him to wait or attend to another client's needs first are incorrect because pain management should be addressed promptly. Instructing on deep breathing exercises may be helpful but is not the initial step in addressing acute pain.
5. The healthcare provider obtains a BP reading of 100/88 in the right arm of a client whose blood pressure is typically 120/60 in the same arm. What action should the healthcare provider implement first?
- A. Use an electronic sphygmomanometer to take the BP every 30 minutes.
- B. Retake the blood pressure in the same arm, deflating the cuff slowly.
- C. Ask another healthcare provider to recheck the blood pressure to compare results.
- D. Obtain another blood pressure cuff and retake the blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The healthcare provider should first retake the blood pressure in the right arm, deflating the cuff slowly, because a low systolic and high diastolic blood pressure measurement is often the result of deflating the cuff too rapidly. Taking the BP in the same arm ensures consistency and accuracy of the measurement.
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