HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals
1. While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to see the clinic's grief counselor.
- B. Determine if the client has a family history of suicide attempts.
- C. Inquire about whether the life partner had AIDS.
- D. Consult with the healthcare provider about the client's need for antidepressant medications.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client is exhibiting symptoms of normal grief, such as flat affect, withdrawal, and sleep disturbances, following the recent death of his life partner. It is crucial for the nurse to encourage the client to see the clinic's grief counselor. Grief counseling can provide the client with appropriate support and coping strategies during this grieving process, helping him navigate through his loss and emotions effectively.
2. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. Which action will the nurse take next?
- A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
- B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect it upward.
- C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, if no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting the catheter, it is likely that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the first catheter in place will help locate the meatus more easily when attempting the second catheterization. This approach ensures correct placement of the catheter in the bladder and minimizes the risk of causing unnecessary discomfort or trauma to the patient.
3. During the admission assessment of a terminally ill male client, he states that he is an agnostic. What is the best nursing action in response to this statement?
- A. Provide information about the hours and location of the chapel
- B. Document the statement in the client’s spiritual assessment
- C. Invite the client to a healing service for people of all religions
- D. Offer to contact a spiritual advisor of the client’s choice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Documenting the client's statement in the spiritual assessment is the best nursing action in response to his disclosure of being an agnostic. This respects the client's beliefs and preferences, ensuring that care is tailored to his individual needs. It also demonstrates a commitment to providing holistic and patient-centered care. Providing information about the chapel's hours and location (choice A) may not align with the client's beliefs as an agnostic. Inviting the client to a healing service (choice C) assumes the client's interest in such activities, which may not be the case. Offering to contact a spiritual advisor (choice D) may not be necessary if the client did not express a desire for it.
4. The census on the unit is 90 percent, and there are no private rooms available. An elderly client with influenza is admitted. Which of the following rooms would it be appropriate to assign this client?
- A. A double room with a client admitted for impetigo.
- B. A double room with another client with the same diagnosis.
- C. A four-bed room with three clients who have had orthopedic surgery.
- D. A double room with an elderly client with a diagnosis of chickenpox.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a private room is not an option, the best choice is to assign the elderly client with influenza to a double room with another client diagnosed with the same condition. This is ideal as droplet precautions would likely already be in place for the other client, reducing the risk of spreading the infection to other clients in the unit. Choice A is not appropriate as impetigo does not require the same precautions as influenza. Choice C is not ideal as orthopedic surgery does not involve respiratory precautions. Choice D is incorrect because chickenpox requires airborne precautions, which could pose a risk to the elderly client with influenza.
5. In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Witness the client's signature on the permit.
- B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
- C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery.
- D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the anesthesia is administered.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should inform the surgeon promptly that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery. It is crucial for the surgeon to be aware of these issues as it is their responsibility to explain the procedure to the client and ensure that the necessary consent is obtained before proceeding with the surgery. Answering the client's questions directly (choice B) may not be appropriate as the surgeon is the one responsible for providing detailed information about the procedure. Witnessing the client's signature (choice A) is premature since the permit is not signed. Reassuring the client (choice D) is not the most appropriate action at this point; the priority is to involve the surgeon in addressing the unsigned permit and the client's questions.
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