HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Exam
1. While caring for a client who was admitted with myocardial infarction (MI) 2 days ago, the nurse notes today's temperature is 101.1 degrees Fahrenheit (38.5 degrees Celsius). The appropriate nursing intervention is to
- A. Call the health care provider immediately
- B. Administer acetaminophen as ordered as this is normal at this time
- C. Send blood, urine, and sputum for culture
- D. Increase the client's fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer acetaminophen as ordered because a slight fever is normal after an MI. This intervention can help manage the fever unless other complications are present. Calling the health care provider immediately is not necessary for a slight fever post-MI. Sending blood, urine, and sputum for culture is not indicated solely based on a slight fever without other symptoms or signs of infection. Increasing fluid intake may be beneficial for various reasons but is not the priority in this situation where managing the fever with acetaminophen is appropriate.
2. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of these instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. You should avoid eating or drinking anything after midnight the day before the test.
- B. You may have a light breakfast the morning of the test.
- C. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.
- D. You will need to avoid taking any medications the day before the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.' Before a colonoscopy, it is essential to cleanse the colon thoroughly by drinking a bowel preparation solution. This helps to ensure that the colon is clear for the procedure, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding eating or drinking after midnight, having a light breakfast, and avoiding medications are not specific instructions related to the colonoscopy preparation process.
3. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to
- A. Exercise by doing weight-bearing activities
- B. Exercise to reduce weight
- C. Avoid exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture
- D. Exercise to strengthen muscles and thereby protect bones
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important instruction for a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis regarding exercise is to engage in weight-bearing activities. Weight-bearing exercises are crucial in maintaining bone density and preventing osteoporosis-related fractures. Choice B is incorrect because the primary focus should be on bone health rather than weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding all exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture would limit physical activity, which is essential for overall health. Choice D is incorrect as while strengthening muscles is beneficial, weight-bearing activities directly impact bone health in osteoporosis.
4. Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?
- A. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect.
- B. Most antipsychotic drugs cause elevated blood pressure.
- C. This provides information on the amount of sodium allowed in the diet.
- D. It will indicate the need to institute anti-parkinsonian drugs.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial when clients are receiving antipsychotic drugs since it is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to symptoms like dizziness and falls, making it essential to monitor blood pressure regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because most antipsychotic drugs do not typically cause elevated blood pressure, monitoring blood pressure is not directly related to the amount of sodium in the diet, and blood pressure monitoring is not primarily used to determine the need for anti-parkinsonian drugs in clients receiving antipsychotic medications.
5. The nurse is caring for a child immediately after surgical correction of a ventricular septal defect. Which of the following nursing assessments should be a priority?
- A. Assess nail beds for color and refill
- B. Assess for postoperative arrhythmias
- C. Auscultate for pulmonary congestion
- D. Monitor equality of peripheral pulses
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Postoperative arrhythmias are a common and potentially serious complication after cardiac surgery, making them a priority to monitor. Assessing for postoperative arrhythmias takes precedence over other assessments like checking nail beds for color and refill, auscultating for pulmonary congestion, or monitoring peripheral pulses as arrhythmias can have immediate and severe implications for the child's health.
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