HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. While assessing a client who is experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, the nurse observes periods of apnea. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Elevate the head of the client's bed
- B. Auscultate the client's breath sounds
- C. Measure the length of the apneic periods
- D. Suction the client's oropharynx
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a nurse observes periods of apnea in a client experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, measuring the length of the apneic periods is essential. This action helps in determining the severity of Cheyne-Stokes respirations by providing valuable information about the duration of interrupted breathing cycles. Elevating the head of the client's bed (Choice A) may be beneficial in some respiratory conditions but is not the priority in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Auscultating the client's breath sounds (Choice B) is a general assessment and may not directly address the issue of apnea in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Suctioning the client's oropharynx (Choice D) is not the initial intervention for managing Cheyne-Stokes respirations unless secretions are obstructing the airway.
2. The nurse is performing a physical assessment of a male client who has chronic renal failure. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Client reports difficulty breathing
- B. Client reports shortness of breath when lying flat
- C. Client reports swelling in the feet and ankles
- D. Client reports a metallic taste in the mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with chronic renal failure, difficulty breathing is the most critical finding to report. This symptom may indicate fluid overload or pulmonary edema, which can be life-threatening. Shortness of breath when lying flat (orthopnea) is also concerning but less urgent than difficulty breathing. Swelling in the feet and ankles (edema) is a common finding in renal failure but may not be as immediately critical as difficulty breathing. A metallic taste in the mouth is associated with uremia, a common complication of chronic renal failure, but it is not as urgent as respiratory distress.
3. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client's B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Measure the client's oxygen saturation before taking further action
- B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
- C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
- D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose of furosemide is appropriate when a client with heart failure has an elevated BNP level. BNP elevation indicates fluid overload, and furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing excess fluid. Measuring the client's oxygen saturation (Choice A) is not directly related to addressing fluid overload. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not indicated for managing elevated BNP levels. Holding the furosemide dose (Choice D) would delay appropriate treatment for fluid overload.
4. A client with a history of seizures is being discharged with a prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin). Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?
- A. Take the medication with meals
- B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
- C. Limit sodium intake
- D. Take the medication at bedtime
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction is to advise the client to avoid alcohol while taking phenytoin. Alcohol can interact with phenytoin, making it less effective and leading to increased side effects. Taking the medication with meals (Choice A) may help reduce gastrointestinal upset but is not the most crucial instruction for this medication. Limiting sodium intake (Choice C) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice D) is not a standard instruction for phenytoin administration.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Maintain the client on bed rest
- B. Apply warm, moist compresses to the legs
- C. Encourage early ambulation
- D. Massage the legs daily
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to encourage early ambulation. Early ambulation helps prevent DVT by promoting circulation, reducing stasis, and preventing blood clot formation. Maintaining the client on bed rest (Choice A) would increase the risk of DVT due to decreased mobility. Applying warm, moist compresses to the legs (Choice B) can be beneficial for other conditions but does not directly prevent DVT. Massaging the legs daily (Choice D) can dislodge a blood clot, leading to serious complications in a client at risk for DVT.
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