Nursing Elites

1. When obtaining an admission history for a client who is at 9 weeks gestation, the client states, 'I had a miscarriage 2 years ago.' Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. How long was your previous pregnancy?
• B. How long did it take for you to become pregnant after your miscarriage?
• C. Was your miscarriage during the first trimester?
• D. Do you have any children now?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Understanding the duration of the previous pregnancy helps assess the client's obstetric history. Choice B focuses on the time it took to conceive after the miscarriage, which is less relevant at this point. Choice C asks about the timing of the miscarriage rather than the duration of the previous pregnancy. Choice D inquires about the current status of having children, which is not directly related to the client's obstetric history.

2. In the newborn nursery, the nurse admits a baby from labor and delivery who is suspected of having a congenital heart disease. Which finding helps to confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Pink lips and tongue with cyanotic hands and feet
• B. Respiration rate of 40 and heart rate of 144
• C. Centralized cyanosis and tachycardia when crying
• D. Desquamation from areas of cracked, parchment-like skin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Centralized cyanosis and tachycardia are classic signs of congenital heart disease. Choice A is incorrect because cyanosis in the hands and feet is not specific to congenital heart disease. Choice B is incorrect as the vital signs provided are not specific indicators of congenital heart disease. Choice D is unrelated to the typical signs of congenital heart disease.

3. A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client's statements?

• A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram
• B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure
• C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after the menstrual period ends
• D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to perform breast self-examination (BSE) 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is important because breasts are least tender during this phase of the menstrual cycle, allowing for a more effective examination. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, the immediate concern is the timing of BSE. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE practice just needs a slight adjustment in timing, not an in-depth review. Choice D is incorrect as the client should perform BSE when her breasts are least tender for optimal detection of any abnormalities.

4. The nurse assesses a client who is receiving an infusion of 5% dextrose in water with 20 mEq of potassium chloride. The client has oliguria and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the laboratory results
• B. Decrease the rate of the IV infusion
• C. Stop the infusion
• D. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to stop the infusion. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further potassium from being administered, which can exacerbate the client's hyperkalemia. Notifying the healthcare provider of the laboratory results (Choice A) can be done after taking immediate action to stop the infusion. Decreasing the rate of the IV infusion (Choice B) may not be sufficient to address the high potassium level quickly. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) (Choice D) is not the initial action for managing hyperkalemia; stopping the potassium infusion takes precedence.

5. A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?

• A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
• B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
• C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
• D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.

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