Nursing Elites

1. Which physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?

• A. Unilateral lower leg pain.
• B. Saturating two perineal pads per hour.
• C. Pulse rate of 56 bpm.
• D. Soft, spongy fundus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pulse rate of 56 bpm is a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Bradycardia (pulse rate 50-70 bpm) can be a normal postpartum occurrence due to increased stroke volume and decreased cardiac output after delivery. Unilateral lower leg pain and saturating two perineal pads per hour are not normal findings and require further assessment. A soft, spongy fundus could indicate uterine atony, which is abnormal postpartum.

2. A client at 28 weeks gestation calls the antepartum clinic and reports experiencing a small amount of bright red vaginal bleeding without uterine contractions or abdominal pain. What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide?

• A. Come to the clinic today for an ultrasound.
• B. Go immediately to the emergency room.
• C. Lie on your left side for about one hour and see if the bleeding stops.
• D. Bring a urine specimen to the lab tomorrow to determine if you have a urinary tract infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bright red vaginal bleeding without pain could indicate placental issues such as previa. An ultrasound is necessary to evaluate the cause. It is important to rule out potential serious conditions like placental previa, which can lead to further complications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, prompt evaluation through an ultrasound at the clinic is essential for appropriate management and ensuring the well-being of the client and her baby.

3. When should the LPN/LVN encourage the laboring client to begin pushing?

• A. When there is only an anterior or posterior lip of the cervix left.
• B. When the client describes the need to have a bowel movement.
• C. When the cervix is completely dilated.
• D. When the cervix is completely effaced.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should encourage the laboring client to begin pushing when the cervix is completely dilated to 10 centimeters. Pushing before full dilation can lead to cervical injury and ineffective labor progress. By waiting for complete dilation, the client can push effectively, aiding in the descent of the baby through the birth canal. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pushing before complete dilation can be harmful and may not effectively help in the descent of the baby. The presence of an anterior or posterior lip of the cervix, the urge to have a bowel movement, or complete effacement of the cervix are not indicators for the initiation of pushing during labor.

4. At 40 weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor with spontaneous rupture of amniotic membranes at home and is in active labor. The client feels the need to bear down and push. What information is most important for the nurse to obtain first?

• A. Estimated amount of fluid.
• B. Any odor noted when membranes ruptured.
• C. Color and consistency of fluid.
• D. Time the membranes ruptured.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The color and consistency of the amniotic fluid are crucial to assess as they can provide valuable information about the presence of meconium, which may indicate fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to complications such as meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn. Therefore, assessing the color and consistency of the amniotic fluid is the priority in this situation to ensure timely interventions if needed. Estimated amount of fluid (Choice A) may be important but not as critical as assessing for meconium. Any odor noted when membranes ruptured (Choice B) is less relevant compared to assessing for meconium. Knowing the time the membranes ruptured (Choice D) is important but does not take precedence over assessing for fetal distress indicated by meconium presence.

5. A loading dose of terbutaline (Brethine) 250 mcg IV is prescribed for a client in preterm labor. Brethine 20 mg is added to 1,000 mL of D5W. How many milliliters of the solution should the nurse administer?

• A. 45
• B. 15 mL
• C. 4
• D. 13

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the amount of terbutaline to administer, first convert the dose to the same unit. 250 mcg = 0.25 mg. Next, set up a proportion: 20 mg is to 1000 mL as 0.25 mg is to X mL. Cross multiply and solve for X: 20 × X = 0.25 × 1000. X = (0.25 × 1000) / 20 = 12.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 13 mL of the solution. Choice A is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the accurate conversion and calculation. Choice C is incorrect as it is not the result of the correct proportion calculation.

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