Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is the most appropriate diet for a client during the acute phase of myocardial infarction?

• A. Liquids as desired.
• B. Small, easily digested meals.
• C. Three regular meals per day.
• D. Nothing by mouth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the acute phase of myocardial infarction, it is recommended to provide small, easily digested meals for the client. This type of diet is better tolerated as it reduces the workload on the heart, allowing for easier digestion and absorption of nutrients. Choice A, 'Liquids as desired,' may not provide adequate nutrition and may not be well-balanced. Choice C, 'Three regular meals per day,' may be too heavy for the client's weakened condition. Choice D, 'Nothing by mouth,' is not appropriate as the client still requires essential nutrients for recovery.

2. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC).
• B. Prothrombin time (PT).
• C. International normalized ratio (INR).
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.

3. A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?

• A. White blood count of 10,000/mm³.
• B. Serum glucose of 115 mg/dL.
• C. Purulent sputum.
• D. Excessive hunger.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Purulent sputum. Corticosteroids can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Purulent sputum suggests a possible respiratory infection, which can rapidly progress and lead to complications, making it the most concerning finding. Choice A, a white blood count of 10,000/mm³, is within the normal range and not typically a cause for immediate concern. Choice B, a serum glucose level of 115 mg/dL, is also normal and not directly related to corticosteroid use. Choice D, excessive hunger, is a common side effect of corticosteroids but is not as concerning as a sign of infection indicated by purulent sputum.

4. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?

• A. I'm sorry sir, you have a prescription for nothing by mouth from midnight tonight.
• B. I will let you have one cracker, but that is all you can have for the rest of tonight.
• C. What did the healthcare provider tell you about the test you are having tomorrow?
• D. The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing an older Caucasian male who has a history of peripheral vascular disease. The healthcare provider observes that the man's left great toe is black. The discoloration is probably a result of:

• A. Atrophy.
• B. Contraction.
• C. Gangrene.
• D. Rubor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gangrene refers to dead, blackened tissue, often a result of chronic ischemia in clients with peripheral vascular disease. Atrophy (Choice A) is the wasting away or decrease in size of tissue or organ. Contraction (Choice B) refers to the shortening or tightening of a muscle or other body part. Rubor (Choice D) is a red discoloration of the skin, often associated with inflammation or poor circulation, but not typically presenting as blackening like gangrene.

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