Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is the most appropriate diet for a client during the acute phase of myocardial infarction?

• A. Liquids as desired.
• B. Small, easily digested meals.
• C. Three regular meals per day.
• D. Nothing by mouth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the acute phase of myocardial infarction, it is recommended to provide small, easily digested meals for the client. This type of diet is better tolerated as it reduces the workload on the heart, allowing for easier digestion and absorption of nutrients. Choice A, 'Liquids as desired,' may not provide adequate nutrition and may not be well-balanced. Choice C, 'Three regular meals per day,' may be too heavy for the client's weakened condition. Choice D, 'Nothing by mouth,' is not appropriate as the client still requires essential nutrients for recovery.

2. An obese client with emphysema who smoked at least a pack of cigarettes daily is admitted after experiencing a sudden increase in dyspnea and activity intolerance. Oxygen therapy is initiated, and it is determined that the client will be discharged with oxygen. Which information is most important for the nurse to emphasize in the discharge teaching plan?

• A. Methods for weight loss
• B. Guidelines for oxygen use
• C. Approaches to conserve energy
• D. Strategies for smoking cessation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority for the nurse to emphasize in the discharge teaching plan is the 'Guidelines for oxygen use.' As the client with emphysema is being discharged with oxygen therapy, it is crucial for the nurse to ensure that the client understands how to use oxygen properly to prevent complications and promote effective management of the condition. While weight loss, conserving energy, and smoking cessation are important aspects of care for this client, in this specific case, ensuring the safe and appropriate use of supplemental oxygen takes precedence to optimize the client's respiratory function and overall well-being.

3. A nurse administers scopolamine as prescribed to a client in preparation for surgery. For which side effect of this medication does the nurse monitor the client?

• A. Pupil constriction
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Complaints of dry mouth
• D. Complaints of feeling sweaty

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Complaints of feeling sweaty.' Scopolamine, an anticholinergic medication, commonly causes the side effect of decreased sweating, not increased urine output or pupil constriction. While dry mouth is a possible side effect, it is less likely than the altered sweating pattern. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for complaints of feeling sweaty due to the potential side effect of decreased sweating associated with scopolamine.

4. A client who has heart failure is admitted with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Administer 20 mEq of potassium chloride.
• B. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
• C. Arrange a consultation with the dietitian.
• D. Educate about the side effects of diuretics.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypokalemia, defined as a serum potassium level below the normal range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, can lead to changes in myocardial irritability and ECG waveform, potentially causing life-threatening dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to initiate continuous cardiac monitoring to promptly detect any abnormal heart rhythms or ventricular ectopy. This monitoring is crucial for assessing the impact of potassium replacement therapy on the cardiac rhythm and ensuring the safety of the client. While administering potassium chloride is important for correcting the hypokalemia, it should occur after cardiac monitoring is in place. Consulting with a dietitian and educating about diuretic side effects are relevant aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation where cardiac monitoring takes precedence for timely intervention.

5. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a nephrostomy. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to urgently contact the healthcare provider? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Foul-smelling drainage
• B. Bloody drainage at site
• C. A & B
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a nephrostomy, the nurse should assess the client for complications and urgently notify the provider if there is foul-smelling drainage, bloody drainage at the site, or both. Foul-smelling drainage can indicate infection, while bloody drainage may suggest bleeding. Clear drainage is generally normal after a nephrostomy. A headache would not typically be directly related to nephrostomy complications. Therefore, options A and B are correct choices for urgent notification, making option C the correct answer.

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