Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is the most appropriate diet for a client during the acute phase of myocardial infarction?

• A. Liquids as desired.
• B. Small, easily digested meals.
• C. Three regular meals per day.
• D. Nothing by mouth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the acute phase of myocardial infarction, it is recommended to provide small, easily digested meals for the client. This type of diet is better tolerated as it reduces the workload on the heart, allowing for easier digestion and absorption of nutrients. Choice A, 'Liquids as desired,' may not provide adequate nutrition and may not be well-balanced. Choice C, 'Three regular meals per day,' may be too heavy for the client's weakened condition. Choice D, 'Nothing by mouth,' is not appropriate as the client still requires essential nutrients for recovery.

2. In a 46-year-old female client admitted for acute renal failure secondary to diabetes and hypertension, which test is the best indicator of adequate glomerular filtration?

• A. Serum creatinine.
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
• C. Sedimentation rate.
• D. Urine specific gravity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Creatinine is a product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the glomerulus. Blood levels of creatinine are not affected by dietary or fluid intake, making it a reliable indicator of kidney function. An elevated creatinine level strongly suggests nephron loss, indicating decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice B, Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN), reflects the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood and can be influenced by factors other than kidney function, such as protein intake and liver health, making it less specific for evaluating glomerular filtration. Choice C, Sedimentation rate, is a measure of how quickly red blood cells settle in a test tube and is not a direct marker of kidney function. Choice D, Urine specific gravity, mainly reflects the kidney's ability to concentrate urine and is not a direct indicator of glomerular filtration rate. Therefore, Serum creatinine is the most appropriate test to assess glomerular filtration in this scenario.

3. Polyethylene glycol–electrolyte solution (GoLYTELY) is prescribed for a hospitalized client scheduled for a colonoscopy. The client begins to experience diarrhea after drinking the solution. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Calling the physician
• B. Administering a cleansing enema
• C. Documenting the diarrhea in the medical record
• D. Giving intravenous replacement fluids in large amounts

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse in this situation is to document the diarrhea in the medical record. Polyethylene glycol–electrolyte solution (GoLYTELY) is a bowel evacuant used to cleanse the bowel before a colonoscopy. It is expected to cause mild diarrhea, which is a normal response to the medication. The diarrhea helps clear the bowel in preparation for the procedure. Calling the physician is not necessary unless there are complications. Administering a cleansing enema or giving intravenous replacement fluids in large amounts are not appropriate actions as they are not indicated for managing the expected diarrhea caused by GoLYTELY.

4. A male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse?

• A. Discuss what the treatment regimen means to him.
• B. Refer the client to a mental health nurse practitioner.
• C. Reschedule the appointments to another date and time.
• D. Discuss the option of peritoneal dialysis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best initial action for the nurse in this scenario is to have a discussion with the client about what the treatment regimen means to him. It is important to assess the client's anxiety, coping styles, and acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis or may have concerns that need to be addressed. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments could be helpful, referring the client to a mental health nurse practitioner or discussing peritoneal dialysis are not the most appropriate first steps. Understanding the client's perspective and concerns is crucial before exploring other interventions.

5. The nurse is caring for a 70-kg patient who is receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) 85 mg 4 times daily. The patient reports experiencing ringing in the ears. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss

• A. decreasing the dose to 50 mg QID.
• B. giving the dose 3 times daily.
• C. obtaining a serum drug level.
• D. ordering a hearing test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) reports experiencing ringing in the ears, it is crucial to consider the possibility of ototoxicity. Ototoxicity is a known adverse effect of aminoglycosides. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to contact the provider to discuss obtaining a serum drug level. This is important to assess the drug concentration in the patient's blood, which can help determine if the ringing in the ears is related to the medication. Decreasing the dose or changing the dosing frequency without assessing the serum drug level may not address the underlying issue and could potentially lead to suboptimal treatment. Ordering a hearing test may be necessary at a later stage if the serum drug level indicates a concern. Therefore, option C, obtaining a serum drug level, is the most appropriate action to take in this scenario.

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