which of the following is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease

HESI RN

Reproductive Health Exam

1. Which of the following tests is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease?

A. Cervical excitation test
B. Chadwick sign
C. Jacquiners sign
D. Palmers sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical excitation test. The cervical excitation test is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease. This test involves pain or tenderness upon movement of the cervix, indicating inflammation of the pelvic organs. Chadwick sign (choice B) refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased vascularity and is not a test for PID. Jacquiners sign (choice C) and Palmers sign (choice D) are not recognized clinical signs or tests for PID, making them incorrect choices.

2. Which of the following is incorrect about oral contraceptive pill 'Saheli'?

A. It is taken by females
B. It has very few side effects
C. It is a steroidal preparation
D. It is 'Once a week' pill

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Saheli' is not a steroidal preparation, it is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive.

3. What is the definition of incomplete abortion?

A. Part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, is expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained.
B. All products of conception are expelled, and there is minimal per vaginal bleeding.
C. The cervix is closed, and the products of conception remain in the uterus.
D. The cervix dilates, and the products of conception are expelled.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Incomplete abortion is defined as part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, being expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained. This is the correct definition, making option A the right choice. Option B is incorrect as it describes a complete abortion. Option C is incorrect because in incomplete abortion, the products of conception are not retained in the uterus, and the cervix may be open. Option D is incorrect as it describes a situation more likely to be seen in an inevitable abortion.

4. When does missed abortion occur?

A. The fetus dies and is retained in utero with the placenta and membranes.
B. All products of conception are expelled with minimal bleeding.
C. The cervix remains closed, and the products of conception remain in the uterus.
D. The cervix remains closed, but there is heavy bleeding.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Missed abortion occurs when the cervix is closed, and the products of conception remain in the uterus. Choice A describes a missed abortion, not choice C. Choice B describes a complete abortion. Choice D describes a threatened abortion, where the cervix remains closed but there is heavy bleeding.

5. Which of the following hormone ratios is MOST likely to be increased in a patient with PCOS?

A. Progesterone/estrogen
B. LH/FSH
C. FSH/LH
D. Glucagon/insulin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), the LH/FSH ratio is most likely to be increased. This hormonal imbalance is a key characteristic of PCOS, where elevated LH levels relative to FSH contribute to the pathophysiology of the condition. Choice A, progesterone/estrogen ratio, is not typically a defining feature of PCOS. Choice C, FSH/LH ratio, is the reverse of what is commonly observed in PCOS. Choice D, glucagon/insulin ratio, is not directly related to the hormonal imbalances seen in PCOS.