Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following tests is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease?

• A. Cervical excitation test
• B. Chadwick sign
• C. Jacquiners sign
• D. Palmers sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical excitation test. The cervical excitation test is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease. This test involves pain or tenderness upon movement of the cervix, indicating inflammation of the pelvic organs. Chadwick sign (choice B) refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased vascularity and is not a test for PID. Jacquiners sign (choice C) and Palmers sign (choice D) are not recognized clinical signs or tests for PID, making them incorrect choices.

2. Which of the following hormone ratios is MOST likely to be increased in a patient with PCOS?

• A. Progesterone/estrogen
• B. LH/FSH
• C. FSH/LH
• D. Glucagon/insulin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), the LH/FSH ratio is most likely to be increased. This hormonal imbalance is a key characteristic of PCOS, where elevated LH levels relative to FSH contribute to the pathophysiology of the condition. Choice A, progesterone/estrogen ratio, is not typically a defining feature of PCOS. Choice C, FSH/LH ratio, is the reverse of what is commonly observed in PCOS. Choice D, glucagon/insulin ratio, is not directly related to the hormonal imbalances seen in PCOS.

3. During which phase of the menstrual cycle does the Graafian follicle rupture?

• A. Regenerative
• B. Menstruation
• C. Ovulation
• D. Proliferative

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ovulation. The Graafian follicle ruptures during the ovulation phase, releasing the mature egg from the ovary. This process marks the midpoint of the menstrual cycle. Choice A, Regenerative, is incorrect as it does not correspond to a specific phase of the menstrual cycle. Choice B, Menstruation, is incorrect because menstruation is the shedding of the uterine lining and occurs after ovulation if fertilization does not occur. Choice D, Proliferative, is incorrect as it refers to the phase in which the uterine lining thickens in preparation for a potential embryo implantation, which happens after ovulation.

4. What is a cord inserted to the very edge of the placenta known as?

• A. Battledore insertion
• B. Placenta velamentosa
• C. Placenta accreta
• D. Vasa Praevia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cord inserted to the very edge of the placenta is known as battledore insertion. This occurs when the cord is attached to the fetal membranes at the placental margin rather than directly to the placental tissue. Placenta velamentosa refers to the condition where the umbilical cord inserts into the fetal membranes before it reaches the placenta. Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall. Vasa Praevia is a condition where fetal blood vessels run across or near the internal cervical opening.

5. Which of the following is a common presentation in women with polycystic ovarian syndrome?

• A. Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism
• B. Amenorrhea, generalized hair loss, and weight gain
• C. Repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain
• D. Fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) commonly presents with irregular periods (oligomenorrhea), obesity, and increased hair growth (hirsutism) due to hormonal imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as amenorrhea (absence of periods), generalized hair loss, and weight gain are not typical features of PCOS. Choice C is incorrect as repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain are not characteristic of PCOS. Choice D is incorrect as fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia (excessive menstrual bleeding) are not primary symptoms seen in PCOS.

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