which of the following is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Reproductive Health Exam

1. Which of the following tests is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical excitation test. The cervical excitation test is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease. This test involves pain or tenderness upon movement of the cervix, indicating inflammation of the pelvic organs. Chadwick sign (choice B) refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased vascularity and is not a test for PID. Jacquiners sign (choice C) and Palmers sign (choice D) are not recognized clinical signs or tests for PID, making them incorrect choices.

2. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) does not cause cold sores of the lips:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) typically causes genital herpes, not cold sores on the lips. Cold sores on the lips are commonly caused by herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1). Therefore, the statement that HSV-2 causes cold sores of the lips is incorrect. Choice B, 'False,' is the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because HSV-2 does not cause cold sores on the lips. Choice C, 'Depends on the person,' is incorrect as the cause of cold sores is predominantly linked to HSV-1. Choice D, 'Not enough information,' is also incorrect as this information is well-established in medical knowledge.

3. Inevitable abortion occurs when:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inevitable abortion occurs when the cervix is open, and the products of conception are about to be expelled. This is a critical point in the process of spontaneous abortion, indicating that expulsion of the products of conception is imminent. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a missed abortion where the ovum dies but the decidua capsularis remains intact. Choice C is incorrect as it describes an incomplete abortion where the products of conception are expelled before the completion of 20 weeks of gestation. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a missed abortion where the fetus dies and is expelled in the first trimester.

4. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is best for:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clients with a baby less than 6 months postpartum. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is a highly effective temporary family planning method that is recommended for women who have recently given birth and are breastfeeding. LAM works best when the baby is less than 6 months old, the mother is exclusively breastfeeding, and her menstrual periods have not resumed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because LAM is specifically designed for postpartum women with infants less than 6 months old, focusing on the lactational infertility that occurs during exclusive breastfeeding.

5. At 8-12 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: At 8-12 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes typically include the onset of colostrum production, not just tenderness. Colostrum is the first milk produced by the mammary glands during pregnancy. While some women may experience prickling or tingling sensations, prominent and mobile nipples, and darkening of the nipple, the key change during this time period is the production of colostrum. This substance is rich in antibodies and important for the newborn's initial nutrition. Therefore, the correct answer is not listed among the choices provided.

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