HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam
1. Which of the following tests is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease?
- A. Cervical excitation test
- B. Chadwick sign
- C. Jacquiners sign
- D. Palmers sign
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical excitation test. The cervical excitation test is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease. This test involves pain or tenderness upon movement of the cervix, indicating inflammation of the pelvic organs. Chadwick sign (choice B) refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased vascularity and is not a test for PID. Jacquiners sign (choice C) and Palmers sign (choice D) are not recognized clinical signs or tests for PID, making them incorrect choices.
2. Discuss the anatomical/physiological changes in pregnancy under the following: Cardiovascular system
- A. The heart is displaced upward and to the left by the enlarging uterus, cardiac capacity increases, and blood pressure declines slightly.
- B. The heart is displaced downward and to the right, and blood pressure increases.
- C. The cardiovascular system remains unchanged during pregnancy.
- D. Cardiovascular changes include increased peripheral resistance and reduced cardiac output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During pregnancy, the cardiovascular system undergoes changes such as the heart being displaced upward and to the left by the enlarging uterus, increased cardiac capacity, and a slight decline in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the heart is displaced upwards, not downwards, and blood pressure typically decreases slightly. Choice C is incorrect as the cardiovascular system does undergo changes during pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as cardiovascular changes in pregnancy involve increased cardiac output rather than reduced output.
3. During which phase of the menstrual cycle does the Graafian follicle rupture?
- A. Regenerative
- B. Menstruation
- C. Ovulation
- D. Proliferative
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ovulation. The Graafian follicle ruptures during the ovulation phase, releasing the mature egg from the ovary. This process marks the midpoint of the menstrual cycle. Choice A, Regenerative, is incorrect as it does not correspond to a specific phase of the menstrual cycle. Choice B, Menstruation, is incorrect because menstruation is the shedding of the uterine lining and occurs after ovulation if fertilization does not occur. Choice D, Proliferative, is incorrect as it refers to the phase in which the uterine lining thickens in preparation for a potential embryo implantation, which happens after ovulation.
4. Oligomenorrhea is defined as a cycle longer than:
- A. 28 days
- B. 30 days
- C. 35 days
- D. 40 days
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Oligomenorrhea is defined as a menstrual cycle longer than 35 days. A cycle of 28 days (Choice A) is within the normal range, and not considered oligomenorrhea. Similarly, 30 days (Choice B) and 40 days (Choice D) are also within the normal range. The correct definition of oligomenorrhea specifically refers to cycles longer than 35 days, making Choice C the correct answer.
5. What action does the copper used in Copper T have?
- A. Blastocidal
- B. Bacteriostatic
- C. Bacteriocidal
- D. Spermicidal
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spermicidal. The copper in Copper T exerts its action by affecting sperm viability and motility, thus preventing fertilization. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Copper T primarily works by preventing sperm from reaching and fertilizing the egg, rather than acting on blastocysts, bacteria, or bacteriocins.
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