Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following tests is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease?

• A. Cervical excitation test
• B. Chadwick sign
• C. Jacquiners sign
• D. Palmers sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical excitation test. The cervical excitation test is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease. This test involves pain or tenderness upon movement of the cervix, indicating inflammation of the pelvic organs. Chadwick sign (choice B) refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased vascularity and is not a test for PID. Jacquiners sign (choice C) and Palmers sign (choice D) are not recognized clinical signs or tests for PID, making them incorrect choices.

2. Which one of the following is not a stage in the ovarian cycle of the menstrual cycle?

• A. Recruitment of Graafian follicle
• B. Selection of dominant follicle
• C. Luteal phase
• D. Formation of corpus luteum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The recruitment of the Graafian follicle is indeed a stage in the ovarian cycle. During the ovarian cycle, the primary follicles are recruited to develop further, leading to the formation of the Graafian follicle. The selection of the dominant follicle, luteal phase, and formation of the corpus luteum are other essential stages in the ovarian cycle. Therefore, option A is not correct as it is a crucial phase in the process of ovulation and fertilization.

3. Amniocentesis, a prenatal diagnostic test used to determine fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities, is based on:

• A. The karyotyping of the amniotic fluid
• B. Chorionic villus sampling
• C. Umbilical cord blood sampling
• D. Ultrasound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of the fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid, which is extracted from the amniotic sac surrounding the developing fetus. This fluid contains cells shed by the fetus, which can be cultured and analyzed to obtain a karyotype, providing information about the fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chorionic villus sampling involves obtaining a sample of the chorionic villi from the placenta, not the amniotic fluid; umbilical cord blood sampling is typically used for other purposes like assessing the baby's blood for infections or genetic disorders; and ultrasound is a diagnostic imaging technique that does not involve the analysis of fetal cells for genetic information.

4. What action does the copper used in Copper T have?

• A. Blastocidal
• B. Bacteriostatic
• C. Bacteriocidal
• D. Spermicidal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spermicidal. The copper in Copper T exerts its action by affecting sperm viability and motility, thus preventing fertilization. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Copper T primarily works by preventing sperm from reaching and fertilizing the egg, rather than acting on blastocysts, bacteria, or bacteriocins.

5. The placenta is developed from which part of the trophoblast?

• A. Chorionic Frondosum
• B. Anchoring Villi
• C. Chorionic Laeve
• D. Body Stalk

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chorionic Frondosum. The placenta is developed from the chorionic frondosum part of the trophoblast. This structure gives rise to the fetal part of the placenta. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Anchoring Villi are projections from the chorionic plate that attach the placenta to the uterine wall. Chorionic Laeve refers to the smooth chorion that covers the fetal surface of the placenta. The Body Stalk is a structure that connects the early embryo to the trophoblastic pole of the blastocyst.

Similar Questions