which of the following is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease which of the following is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Reproductive Health Exam

1. Which of the following tests is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical excitation test. The cervical excitation test is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease. This test involves pain or tenderness upon movement of the cervix, indicating inflammation of the pelvic organs. Chadwick sign (choice B) refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased vascularity and is not a test for PID. Jacquiners sign (choice C) and Palmers sign (choice D) are not recognized clinical signs or tests for PID, making them incorrect choices.

2. The GIFT technique is recommended for which of the following females?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the above.' The GIFT technique is recommended for females who cannot produce an ovum, provide a suitable environment for fertilization, or retain the embryo inside the uterus. This technique involves transferring the unfertilized eggs and sperm directly into the fallopian tube, bypassing the need for the ovum to travel through the fallopian tube. Choices A, B, and C all represent different scenarios where the GIFT technique would be a suitable option, making option D the correct choice.

3. When planning care for a child diagnosed with rheumatic fever, what is the primary goal of nursing care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of nursing care for a child diagnosed with rheumatic fever is to prevent cardiac damage. Rheumatic fever can lead to complications affecting the heart, making it crucial to monitor and prevent cardiac involvement to avoid long-term consequences. While addressing fever and joint pain are important aspects of care, preventing cardiac damage takes precedence in managing rheumatic fever. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not the primary goals of nursing care in this case.

4. A client with bladder cancer who underwent a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to urgently contact the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pale or cyanotic appearance of the ileostomy stoma indicates compromised circulation, which can lead to necrosis if not promptly addressed. On the other hand, blood-tinged urine and serous sanguineous drainage are common following a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit. These findings do not typically indicate an urgent issue. An oxygen saturation of 92% on room air is slightly below the normal range but does not warrant urgent healthcare provider contact unless accompanied by significant respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms.

5. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

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