HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Quizlet
1. Which of the following is not a role of Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programs?
- A. Awareness about reproductive health
- B. Providing facilities to build a reproductively healthy society
- C. Providing support to reproductively sick people
- D. Promoting abortion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Promoting abortion is not a role of the Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programs. RCH programs focus on promoting awareness about reproductive health, providing facilities to build a reproductively healthy society, and offering support to reproductively sick individuals. The promotion of abortion is not within the scope of RCH programs, which aim to improve maternal and child health outcomes through education, healthcare services, and support systems.
2. The nurse administers an antibiotic for a respiratory tract infection. To evaluate the medication's effectiveness, which laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Platelet count and red blood cell count.
- B. White blood cell count and sputum culture.
- C. Hemoglobin A1c and glucose tolerance test.
- D. Arterial blood gases and serum electrolytes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: White blood cell count and sputum culture. Monitoring white blood cell count and sputum cultures is essential to assess the effectiveness of the antibiotic in treating the respiratory tract infection. Changes in white blood cell count can indicate the body's response to infection, while sputum cultures help determine if the antibiotic is targeting the specific pathogens causing the infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because platelet count, red blood cell count, hemoglobin A1c, glucose tolerance test, arterial blood gases, and serum electrolytes are not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of an antibiotic in treating a respiratory tract infection.
3. A client is receiving teaching about a high-fiber diet to manage constipation. Which statement indicates the best choice for a high-fiber diet?
- A. Eating one medium apple is a good snack option.
- B. Selecting a ½ cup of sweet potatoes for starch is a great choice.
- C. Choosing a ½ cup of bran cereal for breakfast is ideal.
- D. Opting for 1 ounce of almonds when hungry midday is recommended.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because bran cereal is a high-fiber food that can effectively alleviate constipation by promoting regular bowel movements. Option A, an apple, while a healthy snack, may not provide as much fiber as bran cereal. Option B, sweet potatoes, are nutritious but may not be as high in fiber as bran cereal. Option D, almonds, are a good source of healthy fats and protein but do not provide as much fiber as bran cereal.
4. When assessing a child with suspected meningitis, which finding is a characteristic sign of meningitis?
- A. High-pitched cry
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Photophobia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Photophobia, which is sensitivity to light, is a characteristic sign of meningitis in children. It commonly presents along with symptoms such as headache and neck stiffness. This symptom is important to recognize early for prompt diagnosis and treatment of meningitis.
5. Why is prostaglandin E1 prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries?
- A. Prevents hypercyanotic (blue or tet) spells
- B. Maintains an adequate hormone level
- C. Maintains the position of the great arteries
- D. Provides adequate oxygen saturation and maintains cardiac output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prostaglandin E1 is prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries to increase blood mixing, which helps maintain adequate oxygen saturation and cardiac output. This medication does not prevent hypercyanotic spells, maintain hormone levels, or influence the position of the great arteries.