HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. Which of the following is not a barrier method of birth control?
- A. Vaults
- B. Diaphragms
- C. Sterilization
- D. Cervical caps
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Sterilization. Sterilization is a permanent form of birth control that involves surgical procedures to prevent pregnancy by blocking the fallopian tubes or vas deferens. Barrier methods physically prevent sperm from reaching the egg, such as vaults, diaphragms, and cervical caps. These devices create a barrier to sperm, unlike sterilization. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are all considered barrier methods of birth control.
2. When should the surgical correction of hypospadias in a newborn infant typically be done?
- A. Repair should be done by one month to prevent bladder infection.
- B. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
- C. Repairs typically should be done before the child is potty trained.
- D. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Surgical repairs for hypospadias are typically recommended to be performed before the child is potty trained. This timing helps in avoiding complications, ensures better outcomes, and makes the surgical process smoother. Early correction also minimizes the psychological impact on the child regarding genital differences and can improve long-term psychological well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because repairing hypospadias at one month to prevent bladder infection, after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra, or delaying the repair until school age to reduce castration fears are not the standard recommendations. The optimal timing for surgical correction is before the child is potty trained to achieve the best results and psychological outcomes.
3. Which of the following describes an effective method of communication?
- A. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement.
- B. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to explain departmental policies.
- C. A unit manager meets with staff after several safety events to introduce new policies aimed at preventing further safety events.
- D. A unit manager describes safety events that have occurred on the unit to another nurse manager and discusses ideas for policy improvement with the other manager.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it describes an effective method of communication where a unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement. This approach fosters open dialogue, provides constructive feedback, and promotes professional growth. Choice B is incorrect as it only involves the explanation of departmental policies without engaging in a two-way communication process. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on policy introduction after safety events rather than individual feedback. Choice D is incorrect as it involves discussing safety events with another manager and policy improvement, but it does not directly address individual performance feedback, which is essential for effective communication and professional development.
4. A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is placed on a protein-restricted diet. Which nutritional goal supports this dietary change?
- A. Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Decrease the risk of hyperkalemia
- C. Promote healing of injured nephrons
- D. Promote the elimination of albumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN). A protein-restricted diet is essential for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea nitrogen, as the kidneys cannot effectively excrete it. This helps in managing the accumulation of waste products in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not directly related to a protein-restricted diet but focuses on managing potassium levels. Choice C is not a direct nutritional goal of a protein-restricted diet but aims at supporting kidney function. Choice D is not a target of a protein-restricted diet but relates more to managing protein loss in the urine.
5. During the physical examination, Nurse Noah expects to assess which sign in a female client with a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl?
- A. Trousseau's sign
- B. Homans' sign
- C. Hegar's sign
- D. Goodell's sign
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Trousseau's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm when a blood pressure cuff is inflated above systolic pressure and maintained for a few minutes. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular irritability associated with low serum calcium levels. Homans' sign is used to assess for deep vein thrombosis and involves calf pain upon dorsiflexion of the foot. Hegar's sign is a softening of the lower uterine segment seen in pregnancy, while Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix also seen in pregnancy. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct assessment related to hypocalcemia would be Trousseau's sign.