which of the following is most important for the nurse to assess when evaluating the effects of peritoneal dialysis
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1. Which of the following is most important for assessing when evaluating the effects of peritoneal dialysis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Daily weight is the most crucial parameter to assess when evaluating the effects of peritoneal dialysis because it directly reflects fluid balance. Peritoneal dialysis involves the removal of excess fluid and waste products from the body. Monitoring daily weight enables the healthcare provider to track changes in fluid status, ensuring that the dialysis treatment is effective. While serum potassium levels, blood pressure, and serum sodium levels are important parameters to monitor in patients undergoing dialysis, they are not as directly indicative of the immediate effects of peritoneal dialysis on fluid balance as daily weight.

2. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

3. During a routine clinic visit, a nurse is assessing a 48-year-old client with a history of smoking. The client, who exercises regularly, reports calf pain during exercise that disappears at rest. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An Ankle-Brachial Index of 0.65 suggests moderate arterial vascular disease in a client experiencing intermittent claudication, indicating compromised blood flow to the lower extremities during exercise. This finding requires further evaluation to assess the severity of arterial insufficiency and determine appropriate interventions. Choice A (Heart rate of 57 bpm) is within the normal range for an adult at rest and indicates good cardiovascular fitness. Choice B (SpO2 of 94% on room air) is slightly lower than the normal range but is generally acceptable in a healthy individual. Choice C (Blood pressure of 134/82) falls within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns in this context.

4. The client with peripheral artery disease has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Weakness, dizziness, and headache are common adverse effects of Plavix and should be reported. It is essential to consult a physician before stopping Plavix as it plays a crucial role in preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is a common side effect of Plavix and does not indicate a need for further teaching. Choice B is incorrect because taking Plavix with or without food can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D correctly explains the purpose of prescribing Plavix to prevent clot formation.

5. A female client taking oral contraceptives reports to the nurse that she is experiencing calf pain. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calf pain is indicative of thrombophlebitis, a serious, life-threatening complication associated with the use of oral contraceptives which requires further assessment and possibly immediate medical intervention.

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