Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an interpersonal activity of nurse managers, but not necessarily all nurse leaders?

• A. Coaching
• B. Resource allocation
• C. Planning for the future
• D. Monitoring

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Coaching. Nurse managers are directly involved in coaching their team members, providing guidance, support, and mentorship. This is a key interpersonal activity that focuses on developing the skills and performance of individual team members. While nurse leaders may also engage in coaching activities, it is a more specific and hands-on role for nurse managers. Choice B, resource allocation, is a managerial function that involves distributing resources effectively and efficiently. Choice C, planning for the future, is a strategic activity that involves setting goals and directions for the organization. Choice D, monitoring, is a supervisory task that involves overseeing and evaluating processes and outcomes. These activities are important for nurse leaders as well as nurse managers, but coaching is a more direct interpersonal interaction typically associated with nurse managers.

2. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse manager in managing conflict on the unit?

• A. The nurse manager is responsible for identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner.
• B. The nurse manager is responsible for mediating conflicts between staff members and ensuring that they are resolved in a fair and equitable manner.
• C. The nurse manager is responsible for facilitating communication between staff members and ensuring that conflicts are addressed in a timely manner.
• D. The nurse manager is responsible for providing training and support to staff members to help them develop the skills needed to manage conflict effectively.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager's role in managing conflict involves identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner. This includes addressing conflicts at their root cause and guiding staff towards effective resolution. Choice B is incorrect as the nurse manager typically does not act as a mediator but rather empowers staff to resolve conflicts themselves. Choice C is incorrect as while facilitating communication is important, it is not the sole responsibility of the nurse manager. Choice D is incorrect as providing training and support for conflict management is part of the role, but the primary responsibility lies in addressing the sources of conflict directly.

3. The client with type 1 DM asks why it is necessary to rotate injection sites when managing insulin therapy. The nurse's best response is:

• A. It helps prevent skin irritation.
• B. It helps prevent scar tissue buildup.
• C. It ensures more consistent insulin absorption.
• D. It makes the injections less painful.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rotating injection sites is necessary to ensure more consistent insulin absorption. This practice helps maintain stable blood glucose levels by preventing the formation of lipohypertrophy (fatty lumps under the skin) at injection sites. Choices A and B are incorrect as the primary purpose of rotating injection sites is not focused on preventing skin irritation or scar tissue buildup. While rotating injection sites may contribute to reducing pain over time, the primary benefit is the consistency in insulin absorption to support glycemic control, making choice D less relevant.

4. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

• A. Prominent U waves
• B. Prolonged PR interval
• C. Depressed ST segment
• D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

5. The client has been vomiting and has had numerous episodes of diarrhea. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor?

• A. Serum calcium.
• B. Serum phosphorus.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum sodium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During episodes of vomiting and diarrhea, there is a risk of significant potassium loss, leading to potential electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial in this situation to assess and manage any abnormalities promptly. Serum calcium (Choice A) is not typically affected by vomiting and diarrhea. Serum phosphorus (Choice B) levels are not commonly altered by these symptoms. Serum sodium (Choice D) may be affected in severe cases of dehydration, but potassium monitoring is a higher priority due to its potential for rapid depletion in vomiting and diarrhea.

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