Nursing Elites

1. Why is glucose an important molecule in a cell?

• A. Extraction of energy
• B. Synthesis of protein
• C. Building of genetic material
• D. Formation of cell membranes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glucose is a crucial molecule in cells because it serves as the primary source of energy through cellular respiration. Choice B, the synthesis of protein, is incorrect because proteins are typically synthesized from amino acids, not glucose. Choice C, the building of genetic material, is incorrect because genetic material, such as DNA and RNA, is not directly built from glucose. Choice D, the formation of cell membranes, is also incorrect as cell membranes are primarily composed of lipids and proteins, not glucose.

2. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a client with DM. The nurse understands that the peak time for rapid-acting insulin, such as lispro (Humalog), is:

• A. 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration.
• B. 1 to 2 hours after administration.
• C. 2 to 4 hours after administration.
• D. 3 to 5 hours after administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration. Rapid-acting insulins like lispro, such as Humalog, peak quickly within 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration. This peak time is crucial to monitor for potential hypoglycemia, which is most likely to occur during this period. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a longer peak time for rapid-acting insulin, which is inaccurate. Choices C and D are also incorrect because they indicate even longer peak times, which do not align with the rapid onset and peak action of lispro insulin.

4. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor in a client with Cushing's syndrome?

• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Serum calcium levels
• C. Serum potassium levels
• D. Serum sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood glucose levels. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol in the body which leads to increased blood glucose levels due to its effect on glucose metabolism. Elevated blood glucose levels are a common finding in individuals with Cushing's syndrome. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial as it helps in assessing and managing hyperglycemia in these patients. Choice B, serum calcium levels, is not typically a priority in monitoring for Cushing's syndrome. While abnormalities in calcium levels can occur in some endocrine disorders, hypercalcemia is not a hallmark of Cushing's syndrome. Choice C, serum potassium levels, and Choice D, serum sodium levels, are not directly associated with Cushing's syndrome. While electrolyte imbalances can occur in various conditions, they are not specifically linked to Cushing's syndrome as blood glucose levels are.

5. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?

• A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
• B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
• C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
• D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings are utilized in this case to debride the wound by removing dead tissue and promoting healing by secondary intention. Choice A is incorrect as wet-to-dry dressings do not provide a moist wound environment; instead, they promote drying to aid in debridement. Choice B is incorrect because their primary purpose is not to protect the wound but to remove dead tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the main function of wet-to-dry dressings is not to prevent the entrance of microorganisms or minimize wound discomfort.

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