Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to care for a client with a potassium deficit. The healthcare professional reviews the client's record and determines that the client was at risk for developing the potassium deficit because the client:

• A. Has renal failure.
• B. Requires nasogastric suction.
• C. Has a history of Addison's disease.
• D. Is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric suction can lead to significant potassium loss due to the continuous drainage of gastric contents, increasing the risk of a potassium deficit. Choices A, C, and D do not directly result in the significant loss of potassium. Renal failure may lead to potassium retention rather than a deficit. Addison's disease is associated with adrenal insufficiency, not potassium depletion. Potassium-sparing diuretics, as the name suggests, typically help retain potassium rather than cause a deficit.

2. Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future?

• A. Involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision.
• B. Encourage staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements.
• C. Critically analyze and discuss advances in practice with other nurses on staff.
• D. Actively listen to the recommendations of others.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best method for communicating a vision for the future is to involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. This approach fosters ownership and commitment among team members, as they feel part of the vision-building process and understand how their daily tasks contribute to achieving that vision. Choice B, encouraging staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements, is important for fostering communication but doesn't directly address creating and communicating a vision. Choice C, critically analyzing and discussing advances in practice with other nurses, focuses on professional development and knowledge sharing rather than specifically communicating a future vision. Choice D, actively listening to recommendations, is valuable for gathering input but may not be sufficient on its own for effectively communicating a future vision.

3. A male client with primary diabetes insipidus is ready for discharge on desmopressin (DDAVP). Which instruction should nurse Lina provide?

• A. Administer desmopressin while the suspension is cold.
• B. Your condition isn't chronic, so you won't need to wear a medical identification bracelet.
• C. You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or blockage.
• D. You won't need to monitor your fluid intake and output after you start taking desmopressin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is choice C: 'You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or blockage.' Nasal congestion or blockage can interfere with the absorption of nasally administered desmopressin. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is unnecessary as the temperature of the suspension does not impact desmopressin administration. Choice B is incorrect as wearing a medical identification bracelet is essential for individuals with diabetes insipidus to alert healthcare providers in case of emergencies. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring fluid intake and output is crucial when taking desmopressin to ensure proper hydration and medication effectiveness.

4. An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:

• A. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• B. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• C. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• D. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. In the treatment of hypoglycemia, it is important to administer a specific amount of simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels effectively without causing hyperglycemia. 10 to 15 g of simple carbohydrates, such as glucose tablets, fruit juice, or regular soft drinks, is recommended to rapidly increase blood sugar levels in clients experiencing hypoglycemia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either provide too little or too much glucose, which may not effectively treat the hypoglycemic episode or may lead to rebound hyperglycemia.

5. Which of the following describes the role of the nurse in advocating for a patient?

• A. The nurse ensures that the patient has all the information needed to make an informed decision about their care.
• B. The nurse advocates for the patient by communicating their needs and preferences to the healthcare team.
• C. The nurse advocates for the patient by ensuring that they receive the care they need and by protecting their rights.
• D. The nurse advocates for the patient by helping them navigate the healthcare system and access necessary resources.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Nurses advocate for patients by ensuring that they receive the necessary care and by protecting their rights. This involves speaking up for patients, ensuring they are treated with respect, and helping them access appropriate healthcare services. Option A, providing information for informed decision-making, is an important aspect of nursing care but not the central role of advocacy. Option B, communicating patients' needs to the healthcare team, is essential but more focused on teamwork and collaboration. Option D, helping patients navigate the healthcare system and access resources, is valuable but not the primary definition of advocacy in nursing.

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