Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to care for a client with a potassium deficit. The healthcare professional reviews the client's record and determines that the client was at risk for developing the potassium deficit because the client:

• A. Has renal failure.
• B. Requires nasogastric suction.
• C. Has a history of Addison's disease.
• D. Is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric suction can lead to significant potassium loss due to the continuous drainage of gastric contents, increasing the risk of a potassium deficit. Choices A, C, and D do not directly result in the significant loss of potassium. Renal failure may lead to potassium retention rather than a deficit. Addison's disease is associated with adrenal insufficiency, not potassium depletion. Potassium-sparing diuretics, as the name suggests, typically help retain potassium rather than cause a deficit.

2. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

3. Albert, a 35-year-old insulin-dependent diabetic, is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. He has been febrile since admission. His daily insulin requirement is 24 units of NPH. Every morning Albert is given NPH insulin at 0730. Meals are served at 0830, 1230, and 1830. The nurse expects that the NPH insulin will reach its maximum effect (peak) between the hours of:

• A. 1130 and 1330.
• B. 1330 and 1930.
• C. 1530 and 2130.
• D. 1730 and 2330.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: NPH insulin typically peaks 4-12 hours after administration, so a peak between 1530 and 2130 would be expected. Choice A (1130 and 1330) is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice B (1330 and 1930) falls within the possible peak period but is not as accurate as choice C. Choice D (1730 and 2330) is too late for the peak effect of NPH insulin based on the typical peak timing.

4. The client with DM is being instructed by the nurse about the importance of controlling blood glucose levels. The nurse should emphasize that uncontrolled blood glucose can lead to:

• A. Increased risk of heart disease and stroke.
• B. Improved wound healing.
• C. Reduced need for medication.
• D. Decreased risk of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of heart disease and stroke. Uncontrolled blood glucose levels in clients with diabetes mellitus (DM) can lead to cardiovascular complications, such as heart disease and stroke. High blood glucose levels can damage blood vessels over time, increasing the risk of atherosclerosis and cardiovascular events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because uncontrolled blood glucose levels do not improve wound healing, reduce the need for medication, or decrease the risk of infection. In fact, uncontrolled blood glucose levels can impair wound healing, require more medications to manage symptoms, and increase the risk of infections due to compromised immune function.

5. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients' medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for excess fluid volume?

• A. The client taking diuretics
• B. The client with renal failure
• C. The client with an ileostomy
• D. The client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with renal failure are unable to excrete fluids effectively, leading to an increased risk of fluid volume excess. Option A, the client taking diuretics, would be at risk for fluid volume deficit due to increased urine output caused by the diuretics. Option C, the client with an ileostomy, is at risk for fluid volume deficit due to increased output from the ileostomy. Option D, the client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning, may be at risk for dehydration, but not specifically excess fluid volume.

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