HESI RN
Leadership and Management HESI
1. Which of the following is a priority nursing diagnosis for a client with Addison's disease?
- A. Fluid volume deficit
- B. Risk for infection
- C. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
- D. Disturbed body image
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with Addison's disease is 'Fluid volume deficit.' Addison's disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, resulting in decreased aldosterone production. Aldosterone plays a key role in sodium and water retention in the body. With its deficiency, there is an increased risk of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, leading to fluid volume deficit. While infection risk, nutrition issues, and body image disturbances are also important considerations for holistic care, addressing the fluid volume deficit takes precedence due to the immediate physiological impact on the client's health and well-being.
2. A client is scheduled for an arteriogram. The nurse should explain to the client that the arteriogram will confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by:
- A. Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation.
- B. Scanning the affected extremity and identifying the areas of volume changes.
- C. Using ultrasound to estimate the velocity changes in the blood vessels.
- D. Determining how long the client can walk.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation. An arteriogram is a diagnostic procedure that involves injecting a contrast agent to visualize the blood vessels and identify the location of any obstructions. This helps confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by showing where the blockage is located and how collateral circulation is compensating for the reduced blood flow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because scanning the extremity, estimating velocity changes with ultrasound, or determining walking distance are not the primary purposes of an arteriogram in diagnosing occlusive arterial disease.
3. Which of the following clinical findings would be most concerning in a client with hypothyroidism?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Dry skin
- C. Constipation
- D. Depression
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia in a client with hypothyroidism is the most concerning finding as it may indicate severe hypothyroidism, leading to decreased heart rate. Bradycardia can be a sign of myxedema coma, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Dry skin, constipation, and depression are common symptoms associated with hypothyroidism but are not as acutely concerning as bradycardia.
4. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist albuterol (Proventil). The child’s mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son’s airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
- B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
- C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
- D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly. Albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist that helps open the airways during an asthma attack. By reassuring the mother, the nurse reinforces the correct usage of the medication, which is crucial in managing the child's asthma symptoms effectively. Option A is incorrect because immediate evaluation may not be necessary if the child's symptoms are being managed effectively with albuterol. Option B is incorrect as chronic bronchitis is not typically associated with the overuse of albuterol. Option D is incorrect as albuterol primarily acts as a bronchodilator and does not directly reduce airway inflammation.
5. The client is being taught about precautions with Coumadin therapy. Which over-the-counter medication should the client be instructed to avoid?
- A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- B. Cough medicines with guaifenesin
- C. Histamine blockers
- D. Laxatives containing magnesium salts
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). When a client is on Coumadin therapy, NSAIDs should be avoided because they can increase the risk of bleeding due to their antiplatelet effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Cough medicines with guaifenesin, histamine blockers, and laxatives containing magnesium salts do not have a significant interaction with Coumadin therapy that would necessitate avoidance.