Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a common cause of chronic liver disease?

• A. Alcohol abuse.
• B. Hepatitis C infection.
• C. Obesity.
• D. Smoking.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hepatitis C infection is a common cause of chronic liver disease due to its long-term effects on the liver. Hepatitis C can lead to liver inflammation, fibrosis, cirrhosis, and even liver cancer. Alcohol abuse can also cause liver damage, but hepatitis C infection is specifically known for its chronic impact on liver health. Obesity and smoking, while detrimental to overall health, are not typically direct causes of chronic liver disease like hepatitis C infection.

2. The client with chronic renal failure is receiving education on managing fluid intake. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can drink as much water as I want.
• B. I should increase my intake of high-sodium foods.
• C. I can skip a dialysis session if I feel tired.
• D. I can eat whatever I want as long as I take my medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. Clients with chronic renal failure should not skip dialysis sessions, as this can lead to serious complications. Dialysis is crucial for managing fluid and electrolyte balance in these clients. Choice A is incorrect because clients with renal failure often have fluid restrictions. Choice B is incorrect as high-sodium foods can worsen fluid retention in clients with renal failure. Choice D is incorrect because dietary restrictions are important in managing chronic renal failure, and eating whatever one wants can lead to further complications.

3. After checking the client’s gag reflex following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD), which action should the nurse take?

• A. Taking the client’s vital signs
• B. Giving the client a drink of water
• C. Monitoring the client for a sore throat
• D. Being alert to complaints of heartburn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD), the nurse's priority is to assess the client's airway by checking the gag reflex. Once this assessment is done, the next step is to take the client's vital signs to monitor for any signs of complications such as bleeding or changes in respiratory status. Giving the client water immediately after the procedure may not be appropriate, as the client may still have a compromised gag reflex and is at risk for aspiration. Monitoring for a sore throat is important but not the immediate priority post-procedure. Being alert to complaints of heartburn is relevant for assessing the client's symptoms but is not the priority immediately after checking the gag reflex.

4. What is the correct procedure for performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a client's right retina?

• A. Instruct the client to focus on a distant object behind the examiner and not move their eyes during the exam.
• B. Set the ophthalmoscope on the plus 2 to 3 lens and hold it in front of the examiner's right eye.
• C. From a distance of 12 to 15 inches and slightly to the side, shine the light into the client's pupil.
• D. For optimal visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's eye.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an ophthalmoscopic examination, the client should focus on a distant object behind the examiner to dilate the pupil, and the examiner should stand at a distance of 12-15 inches away and slightly to the side. This angle allows for better visualization of the retina. Holding the ophthalmoscope firmly against the examiner's face and shining the light into the client's pupil helps examine the retina effectively. Choice A is incorrect because the client should look at a distant object, not the examiner's nose. Choice B is incorrect as the ophthalmoscope should be directed towards the client's eye, not the examiner's eye. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches away may not provide an optimal view of the retina.

5. A patient who is being treated for dehydration is receiving 5% dextrose and 0.45% normal saline with 20 mEq/L potassium chloride at a rate of 125 mL/hour. The nurse assuming care for the patient reviews the patient’s serum electrolytes and notes a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L and a serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L. The patient had a urine output of 250 mL during the last 12-hour shift. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Contact the patient’s provider to discuss increasing the potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L.
• B. Continue the intravenous fluids as ordered and reassess the patient frequently.
• C. Notify the provider and discuss increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour.
• D. Stop the intravenous fluids and notify the provider of the assessment findings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient’s potassium level is within normal limits, but the decreased urine output indicates the patient should not receive additional IV potassium. Increasing potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L is not needed as the level is normal. Stopping the IV fluids is appropriate due to the decreased urine output, which suggests potential fluid overload. The nurse should notify the provider of the assessment findings for further management. Increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour is not recommended without addressing the decreased urine output first.

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