Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a common cause of chronic liver disease?

• A. Alcohol abuse.
• B. Hepatitis C infection.
• C. Obesity.
• D. Smoking.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hepatitis C infection is a common cause of chronic liver disease due to its long-term effects on the liver. Hepatitis C can lead to liver inflammation, fibrosis, cirrhosis, and even liver cancer. Alcohol abuse can also cause liver damage, but hepatitis C infection is specifically known for its chronic impact on liver health. Obesity and smoking, while detrimental to overall health, are not typically direct causes of chronic liver disease like hepatitis C infection.

2. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC).
• B. Prothrombin time (PT).
• C. International normalized ratio (INR).
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.

3. During an assessment on a patient brought to the emergency department for treatment for dehydration, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 86/50 mm Hg, and a temperature of 39.5° C. The patient becomes dizzy when transferred from the wheelchair to a bed. The nurse observes cool, clammy skin. Which diagnosis does the nurse suspect?

• A. Fluid volume deficit (FVD)
• B. Fluid volume excess (FVE)
• C. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit
• D. Renal failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should suspect Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD) in this patient. Signs of FVD include elevated temperature, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, and cool, clammy skin, which align with the patient's assessment findings. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) typically presents with bounding pulses, elevated blood pressure, dyspnea, and crackles. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit usually manifests as thirst. Renal failure commonly results in Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) rather than Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD).

4. When providing care for an unconscious client who has seizures, which nursing intervention is most essential?

• A. Ensure oral suction is available.
• B. Maintain the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Provide frequent mouth care.
• D. Keep the room at a comfortable temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During seizures in an unconscious client, ensuring oral suction is available is crucial to managing secretions and preventing aspiration. This intervention helps maintain a clear airway and reduce the risk of complications. Maintaining the client in a semi-Fowler's position (Choice B) may be important for airway management but is not as critical as having oral suction ready. Providing frequent mouth care (Choice C) and keeping the room at a comfortable temperature (Choice D) are important aspects of overall care but are not as urgently needed as ensuring oral suction for managing secretions during seizures.

5. A client has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.51, PCO2 31 mm Hg, PO2 94 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances does the nurse recognize in these results?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ABG results show a pH above the normal range (7.35-7.45) and a decreased PCO2, indicating respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, the pH is increased and the PCO2 is decreased. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) would present with a low pH and low HCO3 levels. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) would show an increased pH and HCO3 levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice C) would have a low pH and an increased PCO2.

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