HESI RN
Biology Test
1. Which of the following correctly identifies the two types of cells?
- A. Mitosis and meiosis
- B. Mitochondrion and chloroplast
- C. Genotype and phenotype
- D. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prokaryotic and eukaryotic. Cells are classified into two major types: prokaryotic, which lack a nucleus, and eukaryotic, which have a defined nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. Choice A, mitosis and meiosis, refers to cell division processes. Choice B, mitochondrion and chloroplast, are cell organelles involved in energy production and photosynthesis, respectively. Choice C, genotype and phenotype, relate to genetic characteristics and physical traits, not cell types.
2. A serum phenytoin determination is prescribed for a client with a seizure disorder who is taking phenytoin (Dilantin). Which result indicates that the prescribed dose of phenytoin is therapeutic?
- A. 3 mcg/mL
- B. 8 mcg/mL
- C. 16 mcg/mL
- D. 28 mcg/mL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 16 mcg/mL (Choice C). The therapeutic serum phenytoin range is typically 10 to 20 mcg/mL. A level below this range may lead to continued seizure activity, indicating subtherapeutic levels. Choices A, B, and D are below the therapeutic range and would not be considered therapeutic for a client with a seizure disorder on phenytoin therapy.
3. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- D. Muscle weakness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Peaked T waves on the ECG are a critical finding in hyperkalemia as they indicate potential life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent cardiac complications such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Bradycardia, decreased deep tendon reflexes, and muscle weakness are not typically associated with hyperkalemia and do not pose the same level of immediate risk to the client's life.
4. A nurse is assessing a newly admitted patient with chronic heart failure who forgot to take prescribed medications and seems confused. The patient complains of "just blowing up" and has peripheral edema and shortness of breath. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
- A. Skin turgor
- B. Heart sounds
- C. Mental status
- D. Capillary refill
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increases in extracellular fluid (ECF) can lead to swelling of cells in the central nervous system, initially causing confusion, which may progress to coma or seizures. Although skin turgor, capillary refill, and heart sounds also may be affected by increases in ECF, these are signs that do not have as immediate impact on patient outcomes as cerebral edema.
5. When a male client mentions his foot is hurting while watching TV with his wife, how should the nurse respond?
- A. Ask him to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
- B. Encourage him to wait until bedtime for the pill to help him sleep.
- C. Attend to an acutely ill client's needs first as the client is laughing.
- D. Instruct him in the use of deep breathing exercises for pain control.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10. This helps the nurse assess the intensity of the pain and determine the appropriate pain medication. Encouraging him to wait or attend to another client's needs first are incorrect because pain management should be addressed promptly. Instructing on deep breathing exercises may be helpful but is not the initial step in addressing acute pain.