Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention should be included in the long-term plan of care for a client with COPD?

• A. Administer high-flow oxygen during sleep.
• B. Reduce risk factors for infection.
• C. Limit fluid intake to reduce secretions.
• D. Use diaphragmatic breathing to achieve better exhalation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use diaphragmatic breathing to achieve better exhalation.' Diaphragmatic breathing is an essential intervention for clients with COPD as it helps improve exhalation and lung function, ultimately reducing symptoms over the long term. Option A is incorrect because high-flow oxygen during sleep is more relevant for clients with conditions like sleep apnea rather than COPD. Option B, 'Reduce risk factors for infection,' is important but not as specific to the long-term management of COPD as diaphragmatic breathing. Option C, 'Limit fluid intake to reduce secretions,' is not a recommended intervention for clients with COPD, as adequate hydration is crucial for maintaining respiratory health.

2. A client presents to the emergency department with a severe exacerbation of asthma. The nurse notes that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe and has an oxygen saturation of 86%. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
• B. Obtain a peak flow reading
• C. Administer a bronchodilator
• D. Administer oxygen therapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first priority in an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer oxygen to improve the client's oxygen saturation. In this scenario, the client has a low oxygen saturation level of 86%, indicating hypoxemia, which can be life-threatening. Administering oxygen therapy will help improve oxygenation and support vital organ function. Once the oxygen levels are stabilized, further interventions such as bronchodilators can be implemented. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position may also be beneficial, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence in this critical situation. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important for asthma management but is not the first intervention needed in a client with severe hypoxemia.

3. An adult male is brought to the ER after a motorcycle accident with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which finding requires immediate attention?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears suggest a severe head injury. Projectile vomiting is a red flag symptom that may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which requires immediate attention to prevent further neurological deterioration. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) typically indicates peritonitis and is not directly related to the primary head injury. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally (choice B) suggest a pneumothorax or hemothorax, which are important but not as immediately life-threatening in this context. Rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) is concerning for rib fractures or pulmonary contusion, which are also important but do not take precedence over addressing the potential increased intracranial pressure.

4. A client is being prepared for surgery and has been placed on NPO status. Which of the following is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Assess the client's understanding of the procedure
• B. Monitor the client's compliance with NPO status
• C. Check the client's vital signs
• D. Ensure the client's consent form is signed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monitoring the client's compliance with NPO status is the priority assessment. Ensuring the client remains NPO (nothing by mouth) is crucial to reduce the risk of aspiration during surgery. Assessing the client's understanding of the procedure is important but not the priority at this moment. Checking vital signs is also essential but ensuring NPO status takes precedence for patient safety. Ensuring the client's consent form is signed is necessary but not the priority assessment compared to maintaining NPO status.

5. A 4-year-old has been hospitalized for 24 hours with skeletal traction for treatment of a fracture of the right femur. The nurse finds that the child is now crying and the right foot is pale with the absence of a pulse. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider
• B. Readjust the traction
• C. Administer the ordered PRN medication
• D. Reassess the foot in fifteen minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A pale foot with no pulse suggests a compromised blood supply, indicating a potential vascular emergency. The nurse's immediate priority is to notify the healthcare provider to address the situation promptly. Readjusting the traction, administering PRN medication, or waiting to reassess the foot later could lead to serious complications due to the compromised blood supply, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this critical situation.

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