Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention should be included in the long-term plan of care for a client with COPD?

• A. Administer high-flow oxygen during sleep.
• B. Reduce risk factors for infection.
• C. Limit fluid intake to reduce secretions.
• D. Use diaphragmatic breathing to achieve better exhalation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use diaphragmatic breathing to achieve better exhalation.' Diaphragmatic breathing is an essential intervention for clients with COPD as it helps improve exhalation and lung function, ultimately reducing symptoms over the long term. Option A is incorrect because high-flow oxygen during sleep is more relevant for clients with conditions like sleep apnea rather than COPD. Option B, 'Reduce risk factors for infection,' is important but not as specific to the long-term management of COPD as diaphragmatic breathing. Option C, 'Limit fluid intake to reduce secretions,' is not a recommended intervention for clients with COPD, as adequate hydration is crucial for maintaining respiratory health.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes a sedative for a client with severe hypothyroidism. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Affirm the nurse's plan to review the prescription with the provider.
• B. Administer the sedative as prescribed.
• C. Advise the nurse to administer the medication as prescribed.
• D. Offer to administer the medication since the nurse is concerned.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to affirm the nurse's plan to review the prescription with the provider. Sedatives can worsen symptoms of hypothyroidism, so it is crucial to ensure the safety of the prescribed medication. Administering the sedative without further consultation could lead to adverse effects. Simply advising the nurse to administer the medication without addressing the need for review is not the best course of action. Offering to administer the medication without proper assessment or consulting the provider is not appropriate and could potentially harm the client.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?

• A. Encourage a diet low in carbohydrates and fats.
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach and kale.
• C. Increase salt intake to prevent dehydration.
• D. Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.' Thiazide diuretics can lead to potassium loss, so it is essential for clients to consume potassium-rich foods to maintain adequate levels. Choice A is incorrect because focusing solely on low carbohydrates and fats does not address the specific issue of potassium loss. Choice B is unrelated as vitamin K content is not a concern with thiazide diuretics. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake would exacerbate hypertension and not prevent dehydration.

4. A client has been given a prescription for tetracycline HCL (Sumycin). The nurse should emphasize the client to

• A. Take the medication with food or milk
• B. Avoid prolonged sun exposure
• C. Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes
• D. Expect a yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes.' Tetracycline can cause hepatotoxicity, leading to jaundice which may present as yellowing of the skin or eyes. This is a serious side effect that the nurse should emphasize to the client. Choice A is incorrect because tetracycline should generally be taken on an empty stomach, not with food or milk. Choice B is also incorrect as tetracycline can cause photosensitivity, but it is not directly related to yellowing skin or eyes. Choice D is incorrect because tetracycline can cause yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth, but this is usually seen in children under 8 years of age, not a common concern for adult clients.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the medication immediately
• B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
• C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
• D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

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